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Paper I — General Paper

Teaching & Research Aptitude and General Awareness · Q1–Q50

Notes and model MCQs for each Paper I unit: UGC NET Paper I Study Material.

Paper I — Topic Distribution

How the 50 General Paper questions (Q1–Q50) split across the ten UGC NET Paper 1 units. A few questions bridge topics; each is placed in its closest unit, so treat these as an approximate weight-map for revision.

Unit I · Teaching Aptitude5
Unit II · Research Aptitude3
Unit III · Reading Comprehension5
Unit IV · Communication5
Unit V · Mathematical Reasoning & Aptitude7
Unit VI · Logical Reasoning5
Unit VII · Data Interpretation5
Unit VIII · Information & Communication Technology5
Unit IX · People, Development & Environment5
Unit X · Higher Education System5

Bars are scaled to the largest unit.

Comprehension

The following table shows the cumulative percentage (%) of the total number of Pen Drives (16 GB and 32 GB) sold and the cumulative number of 16 GB Pen Drives sold by a shopkeeper on four days, Monday through Thursday. Total Pen Drives sold in the four days = 1400.

DayCumulative % of all Pen DrivesCumulative no. of 16 GB Pen Drives
Monday20%160
Till Tuesday60%400
Till Wednesday75%530
Till Thursday100%680

Derived daily figures: Total sold — Mon 280, Tue 560, Wed 210, Thu 350. 16 GB — Mon 160, Tue 240, Wed 130, Thu 150. 32 GB — Mon 120, Tue 320, Wed 80, Thu 200.

Q1. If the number of Pen Drives sold on Friday is 20% more than the number sold on Thursday, and the ratio of 16 GB to 32 GB Pen Drives sold on Friday is 7 : 3, then the number of 16 GB Pen Drives sold on Friday is:
  1. 374
  2. 334
  3. 260
  4. 294
Show Answer

Answer: (D) 294. Thursday total = (100−75)% × 1400 = 25% × 1400 = 350. Friday total = 350 × 1.20 = 420. 16 GB share = 7/(7+3) = 7/10, so 16 GB on Friday = 420 × 7/10 = 294.

Q2. The number of 32 GB Pen Drives sold on Tuesday and Wednesday together is ______ more than the number of 16 GB Pen Drives sold on Tuesday.
  1. 160
  2. 250
  3. 140
  4. 210
Show Answer

Answer: (A) 160. 32 GB: Tuesday = 560−240 = 320, Wednesday = 210−130 = 80, together = 400. 16 GB on Tuesday = 240. Difference = 400 − 240 = 160.

Q3. The average number of 32 GB Pen Drives sold on Tuesday, Wednesday and Thursday is ______% more than the number of 16 GB Pen Drives sold on Monday.
  1. 15
  2. 35
  3. 25
  4. 20
Show Answer

Answer: (C) 25. 32 GB on Tue, Wed, Thu = 320, 80, 200; average = 600/3 = 200. 16 GB on Monday = 160. Percentage more = (200−160)/160 × 100 = 25%.

Q4. The number of 32 GB Pen Drives sold on Monday is ______% of the number of 16 GB Pen Drives sold on Thursday.
  1. 80
  2. 75
  3. 50
  4. 45
Show Answer

Answer: (A) 80. 32 GB on Monday = 280−160 = 120. 16 GB on Thursday = 680−530 = 150. Required % = 120/150 × 100 = 80%.

Q5. What is the ratio between the number of 16 GB Pen Drives sold on Wednesday and Thursday together and the number of 32 GB Pen Drives sold on Thursday?
  1. 4 : 3
  2. 7 : 5
  3. 5 : 3
  4. 3 : 2
Show Answer

Answer: (B) 7 : 5. 16 GB on Wed + Thu = 130 + 150 = 280. 32 GB on Thursday = 350 − 150 = 200. Ratio = 280 : 200 = 7 : 5.

Q6. Which of the following statements cannot both be false, although they can both be true?
A. All ducks are birds.   B. Some ducks are birds.   C. Some ducks are not birds.   D. No ducks are birds.
Choose the correct answer:
  1. A and D only
  2. B and C only
  3. A and C only
  4. B and D only
Show Answer

Answer: (B) B and C only. On the square of opposition, B is a particular affirmative (I: “Some S are P”) and C is a particular negative (O: “Some S are not P”). I and O are subcontraries: they cannot both be false (at least one must hold), but they can both be true. Hence B and C.

Q7. Firmware is a ______.
  1. Software
  2. Hardware
  3. Combination of hardware and software
  4. Compiler
Show Answer

Answer: (A) Software. Firmware is a specialised class of software permanently stored in a device's non-volatile memory (ROM/flash) to control its hardware. It is software embedded in hardware — not hardware itself, and not a compiler.

Q8. Match LIST-I (population mean $\mu$ and $\frac1N\sum x_i^2$) with LIST-II (population standard deviation $\sigma$):
A. $\mu=13,\ \frac1N\sum x_i^2=178$   B. $\mu=14,\ \frac1N\sum x_i^2=212$   C. $\mu=15,\ \frac1N\sum x_i^2=229$   D. $\mu=16,\ \frac1N\sum x_i^2=281$
I. 2   II. 3   III. 4   IV. 5
  1. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
  2. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  3. A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
  4. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
Show Answer

Answer: (D) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV. Use $\sigma=\sqrt{\frac1N\sum x_i^2-\mu^2}$. A: $\sqrt{178-169}=3$ (II). B: $\sqrt{212-196}=4$ (III). C: $\sqrt{229-225}=2$ (I). D: $\sqrt{281-256}=5$ (IV). So A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV.

Q9. Which of the following statements are correct?
A. Snooping means secretly listening to a conversation.   B. Worm is a firewall.   C. Keylogger is a network security system.   D. HTTP is a type of cookies.   E. Cookies are used to store browsing information.
Choose the correct answer:
  1. A, B and C only
  2. A, C and E only
  3. B, D and E only
  4. A and E only
Show Answer

Answer: (D) A and E only. A is true (snooping = secretly monitoring/listening). E is true (cookies store browsing/session information). B is false (a worm is malware, not a firewall), C is false (a keylogger is spyware, not a security system), D is false (HTTP is a protocol, not a cookie). Correct: A and E only.

Q10. Match LIST-I (Computer/Mobile Generation) with LIST-II (Service):
A. 1G   B. 2G   C. 3G   D. 4G
I. Interactive Multimedia   II. Digital voice and data services   III. Voice call transmitted in digital form   IV. Voice call transmitted in analog form
  1. A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
  2. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  3. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  4. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
Show Answer

Answer: (C) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I. 1G = analog voice (IV); 2G = voice transmitted in digital form (III); 3G = digital voice + data services (II); 4G = interactive multimedia (I). So A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I.

Q11. Find the wrong term in the series: 8, 10, 24, 78, 320, 1512, 9672.
  1. 78
  2. 1512
  3. 24
  4. 9672
Show Answer

Answer: (B) 1512. The rule is $a_n=a_{n-1}\times(n-1)+2(n-1)$: 8→10→24→78→320. Next should be $320\times5+10=1610$, then $1610\times6+12=9672$ (which matches). So the wrong term is 1512 (should be 1610).

Q12. Match LIST-I (Schemes) with LIST-II (Description):
A. Skill India Mission   B. Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY)   C. Skill Hub   D. Micro-Credentials
I. Nodal Skill Centres   II. Skill-based Courses and Training Programme   III. Skill Ecosystem   IV. Skill Development and Vocational Training opportunities
  1. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  2. A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
  3. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  4. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Show Answer

Answer: (D) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II. Skill India Mission builds the overall skill ecosystem (III); PMKVY provides skill development and vocational training (IV); Skill Hubs act as nodal skill centres (I); Micro-Credentials are short skill-based courses (II). So A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II.

Q13. Which of the following is an ancient treatise on Mathematics?
  1. Sāṃkhya Kaumudi
  2. Sāṃkhya Kārikā
  3. Arthasaṃgraha
  4. Līlāvatī
Show Answer

Answer: (D) Līlāvatī. Līlāvatī, written by Bhāskara II (12th century), is a classic Indian treatise on arithmetic and mathematics. Sāṃkhya Kārikā and Sāṃkhya Kaumudī are philosophical (Sāṃkhya) texts, and Arthasaṃgraha is a work on Mīmāṃsā.

Q14. In a certain code language 'CHAIR' is coded as '64732' and 'EAT' is coded as '571'. How will 'CHEATER' be coded?
  1. 6457521
  2. 6457215
  3. 6457152
  4. 6475152
Show Answer

Answer: (C) 6457152. From the codes: C=6, H=4, A=7, I=3, R=2 and E=5, A=7, T=1. So CHEATER = C·H·E·A·T·E·R = 6·4·5·7·1·5·2 = 6457152.

Q15. Which among the following are different types of communication?
A. Interpersonal   B. Mass   C. Intrapersonal   D. Group   E. Travelling
  1. A and E only
  2. B and E only
  3. A, B, C and D only
  4. C, D and E only
Show Answer

Answer: (C) A, B, C and D only. Interpersonal, mass, intrapersonal and group are all recognised types of communication. “Travelling” is not a type of communication. Correct: A, B, C and D only.

Q16. In Ancient India, the head of the family was called ______.
  1. Pitāmah
  2. Rishi
  3. Guru
  4. Dīkshā Guru
Show Answer

Answer: (A) Pitāmah. The eldest male patriarch who headed the joint family was the Pitāmah (grandsire/patriarch). A Rishi is a sage, a Guru is a teacher, and a Dīkshā Guru is an initiating spiritual teacher.

Q17. Arrange these (HRD/Education) Ministers in chronological order:
A. Smriti Irani   B. Prakash Javadekar   C. Dharmendra Pradhan   D. Ramesh Pokhriyal   E. M. M. Pallam Raju
  1. D, B, A, E and C
  2. E, A, B, D and C
  3. A, B, C, D and E
  4. B, A, C, D and E
Show Answer

Answer: (B) E, A, B, D and C. Order of tenure: M. M. Pallam Raju (2012–14) → Smriti Irani (2014–16) → Prakash Javadekar (2016–19) → Ramesh Pokhriyal (2019–21) → Dharmendra Pradhan (2021– ). So E, A, B, D, C.

Q18. Arrange the following stages of child development according to Jean Piaget in increasing order:
A. Operational stage   B. Pre-operational stage   C. Sensorimotor stage   D. Concrete operational stage   E. Preconceptual thought stage
  1. E, C, B, A, D
  2. C, E, B, D, A
  3. C, E, A, B, D
  4. E, C, D, A, B
Show Answer

Answer: (B) C, E, B, D, A. Piaget's developmental sequence by age begins with the Sensorimotor stage (C), then the preconceptual thought sub-stage (E) at the start of the pre-operational stage (B), followed by the Concrete operational stage (D) and finally the (formal) Operational stage (A): C, E, B, D, A.

Q19. Which of the following is the correct sequence of evolution of technologies used in computer generations?
A. Transistor   B. Vacuum Tube   C. Very large scale integrated circuit   D. Ultra large scale integrated circuit   E. Integrated circuit
  1. A, B, C, D, E
  2. B, A, E, D, C
  3. B, A, E, C, D
  4. A, C, D, E, B
Show Answer

Answer: (C) B, A, E, C, D. Computer generations: 1st Vacuum Tube (B) → 2nd Transistor (A) → 3rd Integrated Circuit (E) → 4th VLSI (C) → 5th ULSI (D). So B, A, E, C, D.

Q20. “Mister X rightly deserves to be called a big poet because he comes from a big country.” Which logical fallacy is committed in the above statement?
  1. Slippery Slope
  2. Hasty Generalization
  3. Fallacy of Division
  4. Begging the Question
Show Answer

Answer: (C) Fallacy of Division. A property of the whole (a “big” country) is wrongly transferred to a member of it (a “big” poet). Concluding that what is true of the whole must be true of its parts is the Fallacy of Division.

Q21. Which of the following is a biochemical treatment process in the context of waste water?
  1. Activated Sludge
  2. Sedimentation
  3. Filtration
  4. Grit Chamber
Show Answer

Answer: (A) Activated Sludge. The activated sludge process uses micro-organisms to biologically (biochemically) break down organic matter. Sedimentation, filtration and the grit chamber are physical (mechanical) treatment stages.

Q22. The number of trials (n) and probability of success (p) for four binomial distributions are given. Compute the variance of each and arrange in ascending order.
A. n=5, p=0.4   B. n=6, p=0.6   C. n=8, p=0.3   D. n=7, p=0.7
  1. A, D, B, C
  2. C, B, D, A
  3. D, B, A, C
  4. A, B, D, C
Show Answer

Answer: (D) A, B, D, C. Variance = npq. A: 5(0.4)(0.6)=1.20; B: 6(0.6)(0.4)=1.44; D: 7(0.7)(0.3)=1.47; C: 8(0.3)(0.7)=1.68. Ascending: A < B < D < C.

Q23. Arrange the following terms in order of decreasing denotation (extension):
A. Natural Science   B. Chemistry   C. Science   D. Organic Chemistry
  1. C, A, B, D
  2. A, C, B, D
  3. B, D, A, C
  4. D, B, A, C
Show Answer

Answer: (A) C, A, B, D. Greater denotation = wider extension (refers to more things). Science ⊃ Natural Science ⊃ Chemistry ⊃ Organic Chemistry, so decreasing denotation is C, A, B, D.

Q24. Which of the following is not a method of Scientific Research?
  1. Tradition, personal experiences, intuition or authority and all subjective approaches
  2. Field Study Method
  3. Experimental Method
  4. Historical Method
Show Answer

Answer: (A) Tradition, personal experiences, intuition or authority and all subjective approaches. Field-study, experimental and historical methods are systematic scientific methods. Relying on tradition, personal experience, intuition or authority is a non-scientific (subjective) way of acquiring knowledge.

Q25. What is Descriptive Research?
  1. It describes social situations, events, systems and structures — the researcher observes and then describes what is found
  2. It explains the causes of social phenomena
  3. It studies subjects about which no or limited information is available
  4. It is based on common-sense knowledge from accumulated experience and beliefs
Show Answer

Answer: (A) It describes social situations, events, systems and structures — the researcher observes and then describes what is found. Descriptive research describes the characteristics of a phenomenon as observed. Explaining causes is explanatory research; studying little-known subjects is exploratory research; common-sense belief is not scientific research.

Q26. Which of the following are true about Thermal Pollution?
A. It is a kind of water pollution.   B. It can be caused by thermal power plants.   C. It can severely affect aquatic life.   D. It increases the Dissolved Oxygen (DO) of a water body.
Choose the correct answer:
  1. A, B, C and D
  2. B, C and D only
  3. A, B and C only
  4. A and D only
Show Answer

Answer: (C) A, B and C only. Thermal pollution is a form of water pollution (A), often from power-plant cooling water (B), and it harms aquatic life (C). It decreases dissolved oxygen (warmer water holds less O₂), so D is false. Correct: A, B and C only.

Q27. The curriculum and pedagogy in school learning should be:
A. Holistic   B. Integrated   C. Enjoyable   D. Flexible   E. Engaging
  1. A, B and D only
  2. B, C and E only
  3. A, C, D and E only
  4. A, B, C, D and E
Show Answer

Answer: (D) A, B, C, D and E. NEP 2020 advocates that school curriculum and pedagogy be holistic, integrated, enjoyable, flexible and engaging — i.e. all five qualities.

Q28. According to the Classical Indian School of Logic, which instrument (pramāṇa) is based on the relation of invariable concomitance (vyāpti) between two events or objects?
  1. Pratyakṣa (Perception)
  2. Anumāna (Inference)
  3. Upamāna (Analogy)
  4. Śabda (Verbal testimony)
Show Answer

Answer: (B) Anumāna (Inference). Inference (Anumāna) rests on vyāpti — the invariable concomitance between the reason (hetu) and the inferred object (e.g. smoke and fire). Perception, analogy and verbal testimony do not rely on concomitance.

Q29. Alternate name of Ethernet card is ______.
  1. Network connector
  2. Modem
  3. Network Interface Card
  4. Internet Card
Show Answer

Answer: (C) Network Interface Card. An Ethernet card is also called a Network Interface Card (NIC) — the hardware that connects a computer to a network.

Q30. The percentage profit earned by selling an article for ₹1920 equals the percentage loss incurred by selling the same article for ₹1280. What should be the selling price to make a profit of 25%?
  1. ₹2100
  2. ₹1950
  3. ₹1900
  4. ₹2000
Show Answer

Answer: (D) ₹2000. Equal %: 1920 − CP = CP − 1280 ⟹ 2·CP = 3200 ⟹ CP = ₹1600. For 25% profit, SP = 1600 × 1.25 = ₹2000.

Q31. Match LIST-I with LIST-II:
A. $\frac38$ is what part of $\frac1{12}$?   B. Which number gives the same result when added to $1\frac12$ and when multiplied by $1\frac12$?   C. $\frac{5}{12}$ of which number equals $3\frac34$ of 100?   D. By how much does $\frac{6}{7/8}$ exceed $\frac{6/7}{8}$?
I. $6\frac34$   II. 900   III. $\frac92$   IV. 3
  1. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  2. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
  3. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  4. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
Show Answer

Answer: (D) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I. A: $(3/8)\div(1/12)=9/2$ (III). B: $x+1.5=1.5x\Rightarrow x=3$ (IV). C: $(5/12)N=375\Rightarrow N=900$ (II). D: $48/7-3/28=189/28=6\tfrac34$ (I). So A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I.

Q32. Match LIST-I (Communication Type) with LIST-II (Meaning/Examples):
A. Intrapersonal   B. Interpersonal   C. Group   D. Mass
I. Direct face-to-face communication between two persons   II. Theatre, dance performances and Rama Lila   III. Books, Press, Cinema, Radio and Television   IV. Contemplation and talking with self
  1. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
  2. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  3. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
  4. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
Show Answer

Answer: (C) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III. Intrapersonal = talking with oneself (IV); Interpersonal = face-to-face between two persons (I); Group = theatre/dance/Rama Lila (II); Mass = press, cinema, radio, TV (III). So A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III.

Q33. What was the name of the first film made in India?
  1. Bhasmasur-Mohini
  2. Satyavan-Savitri
  3. Raja Harishchandra
  4. Alam Ara
Show Answer

Answer: (C) Raja Harishchandra. Raja Harishchandra (1913), directed by Dadasaheb Phalke, was India's first full-length feature film. (Alam Ara, 1931, was the first Indian sound film/talkie.)

Q34. Which of the following are true about the Modified Mercalli Scale (MMS)?
A. It measures the impact upon people.   B. It is also known as hazard manager's scale.   C. Scale size in MMS is much smaller than the Richter Scale.   D. It uses a linear scale for measurement.
Choose the correct answer:
  1. A, B and C only
  2. B, C and D only
  3. A, B and D only
  4. A, C and D only
Show Answer

Answer: (D) A, C and D only. The Modified Mercalli scale grades intensity: what people feel and what happens to buildings and the ground, so A is true. It runs in twelve descriptive steps, I to XII, a small closed scale beside the open-ended Richter magnitude scale, where each step is a tenfold change in wave amplitude, so C is true. Its steps are equal descriptive grades, not powers of ten, so it is a linear scale and D is true. It is not known as a “hazard manager's scale”, so B is false.

Q35. What was the name of the first ever talkie (sound) feature film made in India?
  1. Lanka Dahan
  2. Kichak Vadham
  3. Alam Ara
  4. Raja Harishchandra
Show Answer

Answer: (C) Alam Ara. Alam Ara (1931), directed by Ardeshir Irani, was India's first sound (talkie) feature film.

Q36. Match LIST-I with LIST-II:
A. ICT-based teaching   B. CBCS (Choice Based Credit System)   C. CBT (Computer Based Test)   D. SWAYAM
I. Automated and instant evaluation   II. Online education initiative by MHRD   III. Use of digital tools   IV. Flexibility in course selection
  1. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  2. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  3. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  4. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
Show Answer

Answer: (A) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II. ICT-based teaching = use of digital tools (III); CBCS = flexibility in course selection (IV); CBT = automated, instant evaluation (I); SWAYAM = MHRD's online education initiative (II). So A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II.

Q37. Senior citizens who continue learning will ______.
  1. Never suffer from Alzheimer's and senile dementia
  2. Suffer from Alzheimer's and senile dementia like all old persons
  3. Reduce chances of suffering from Alzheimer's and senile dementia
  4. Suffer from disabilities other than Alzheimer's and senile dementia
Show Answer

Answer: (C) Reduce chances of suffering from Alzheimer's and senile dementia. Lifelong learning keeps the brain active and reduces the chances of Alzheimer's and dementia — it does not guarantee complete immunity, so “never” (option 1) is too absolute.

Q38. What was the concentration (atmospheric level) of carbon dioxide (CO₂) just before the industrial revolution?
  1. 250 ppmv
  2. 280 ppmv
  3. 300 ppmv
  4. 320 ppmv
Show Answer

Answer: (B) 280 ppmv. Pre-industrial atmospheric CO₂ was about 280 ppmv (parts per million by volume).

Q39. Who developed the social model of Role Playing?
  1. Donald Oliver
  2. Fannie Shaftel
  3. David Johnson
  4. John Dewey
Show Answer

Answer: (B) Fannie Shaftel. The Role-Playing model of teaching (in the social family of models) was developed by Fannie Shaftel (and George Shaftel).

Q40. The difference between simple and compound interest (compounded annually) on a certain sum for 2 years at 4% per annum is ₹1. Find the sum.
  1. ₹676
  2. ₹850
  3. ₹1250
  4. ₹625
Show Answer

Answer: (D) ₹625. For 2 years, CI − SI = $P\left(\frac{r}{100}\right)^2$. So $1 = P(0.04)^2 = 0.0016P \Rightarrow P = \dfrac{1}{0.0016} = $ ₹625.

Q41. Active learning can be promoted by ______.
  1. Maintaining attention
  2. Prompting awareness
  3. Helping in theoretical knowledge
  4. Asking students to examine the material from alternative points of view
Show Answer

Answer: (D) Asking students to examine the material from alternative points of view. Active learning engages students in higher-order thinking. Asking students to examine material from alternative points of view makes them analyse and evaluate actively, rather than passively receiving information.

Q42. If the statement “some animals are birds” is given as true, which of the following can be inferred to be false?
A. Some animals are not birds.   B. No animals are birds.   C. All animals are birds.   D. No birds are animals.
Choose the correct answer:
  1. A and D only
  2. B only
  3. A, B, C and D
  4. A, B and D only
Show Answer

Answer: (B) B only. “Some animals are birds” is true, so its contradictory “No animals are birds” (B) is false. “No birds are animals” (D) says the same as B, so it is false too. “Some animals are not birds” (A) and “All animals are birds” (C) cannot be decided from the statement: they may be true. Every option except “B only” includes A or C, so B only is the one option made entirely of statements known to be false.

Q43. Arrange the following organizations in chronological order of establishment (earliest to latest):
A. Directorate of Film Festivals   B. National Film Development Corporation   C. Film and TV Institute of India, Pune   D. Films Division   E. Central Board of Film Certification
  1. D, E, C, A, B
  2. A, B, C, D, E
  3. B, C, D, E, A
  4. C, B, A, D, E
Show Answer

Answer: (A) D, E, C, A, B. Years of establishment: Films Division 1948 (D) → Central Board of Film Certification 1951 (E) → FTII Pune 1960 (C) → Directorate of Film Festivals 1973 (A) → NFDC 1975 (B). So D, E, C, A, B.

Q44. Characteristics of Scientific Research are:
A. Accuracy   B. Precision   C. Systematization   D. Objectivity   E. Uncontrolled condition
Choose the correct answer:
  1. E only
  2. B, C, D and E only
  3. A, B, C and D only
  4. C, D and E only
Show Answer

Answer: (C) A, B, C and D only. Scientific research is accurate, precise, systematic and objective (A, B, C, D). It is controlled, not uncontrolled, so E is not a characteristic. Correct: A, B, C and D only.

Q45. Blue baby syndrome, a water-borne disease in human infants, is known as:
  1. Oxyhemoglobinemia
  2. Memoglobinemia
  3. Metaglobinemia
  4. Methemoglobinemia
Show Answer

Answer: (D) Methemoglobinemia. Blue baby syndrome is methemoglobinemia, caused by high nitrate levels in drinking water that impair the blood's oxygen-carrying capacity, giving infants a bluish tint.

Comprehension

Read the following passage and answer the questions.

Linguistic diversity divides a nation in terms of regional languages. After independence, state organization was undertaken on the basis of languages. Hindi is not acceptable to southern states. English finds no mention in the VIII Schedule of our Constitution. Yet it is a pity that it has taken the role of our national language. For genuine national integration, the fruit of economic development should be shared by each and every section of society. Otherwise, the have-nots never think in terms of national unity. Tension and a sense of injustice among people is bound to hinder the progress of national integration. Economic development and removal of economic disparities play a vital role in the interest of national integration. Therefore, economic integration will certainly lead to national integration. There must be psychological, emotional, cultural and economic integration among the masses. This implies that people must change their loyalties from petty issues to the nation as a whole. Who lives if India dies?

Q46. On what basis does linguistic diversity divide a nation?
  1. In terms of vernacular language
  2. In terms of rural language
  3. In terms of dialects spoken across the country
  4. In terms of regional languages
Show Answer

Answer: (D) In terms of regional languages. The passage opens: “Linguistic diversity divides a nation in terms of regional languages.”

Q47. ______ integration is required for promoting National Integration.
  1. Spiritual
  2. Sociological
  3. Cultural
  4. Political
Show Answer

Answer: (C) Cultural. The passage states there must be “psychological, emotional, cultural and economic integration among the masses.” Of the options, only Cultural is mentioned.

Q48. What hinders the progress of National Integration the most?
  1. Misuse of regional resources
  2. Economic disparities
  3. Improvement in the GDP
  4. Affirmative action
Show Answer

Answer: (B) Economic disparities. The passage stresses that removal of economic disparities is vital, and that tension and injustice from such disparities hinder national integration.

Q49. Which of the following languages is not mentioned in the VIII Schedule of the Constitution?
  1. Tamil
  2. English
  3. Maithili
  4. Malayalam
Show Answer

Answer: (B) English. The passage explicitly says “English finds no mention in the VIII Schedule of our Constitution.” Tamil, Maithili and Malayalam are all listed there; English is not.

Q50. Which of the following is harmful for National Integration?
  1. Regional diversity
  2. Linguistic diversity
  3. Lack of employment
  4. Feeling of injustice
Show Answer

Answer: (D) Feeling of injustice. The passage says “Tension and a sense of injustice among people is bound to hinder the progress of national integration.” Hence a feeling of injustice is harmful.

Paper II — Statistics (Code 107)

Subject paper · Q51–Q150

Paper II — Topic Distribution

How the 100 Statistics questions (Q51–Q150) split across the ten syllabus units. A few questions bridge topics; each is placed in its closest unit, so treat these as an approximate weight-map for revision.

Click a unit name to jump to that study unit. Bars are scaled to the largest unit.

Q51. Let $A$ and $B$ be two square matrices of order $n\times n$ and $\nu(\cdot)$ denotes the nullity of the matrix inside the brackets. Then
  1. $\min\{\nu(A),\nu(B)\}\le \nu(AB)\le \max\{\nu(A),\nu(B)\}$
  2. $\max\{\nu(A),\nu(B)\}\le \nu(A)+\nu(B)\le \nu(AB)$
  3. $\max\{\nu(A),\nu(B)\}\le \nu(AB)\le \nu(A)+\nu(B)-n$
  4. $\max\{\nu(A),\nu(B)\}\le \nu(AB)\le \nu(A)+\nu(B)$
Show Answer

Answer: (D) $\max\{\nu(A),\nu(B)\}\le \nu(AB)\le \nu(A)+\nu(B)$. Use Sylvester\'s rank inequality $\operatorname{rank}(A)+\operatorname{rank}(B)-n\le \operatorname{rank}(AB)\le \min\{\operatorname{rank}(A),\operatorname{rank}(B)\}$ together with nullity $\nu(M)=n-\operatorname{rank}(M)$. The upper bound $\operatorname{rank}(AB)\le\min\{\operatorname{rank}A,\operatorname{rank}B\}$ becomes $\nu(AB)\ge\max\{\nu(A),\nu(B)\}$, giving the lower bound. The lower bound $\operatorname{rank}(AB)\ge\operatorname{rank}A+\operatorname{rank}B-n$ becomes $\nu(AB)\le\nu(A)+\nu(B)$, giving the upper bound. Hence $\max\{\nu(A),\nu(B)\}\le\nu(AB)\le\nu(A)+\nu(B)$.

Q52. Let $p$ be the probability that a coin falls head in a single toss. To test $H_0:p=\tfrac12$ against $H_1:p=\tfrac34$, the coin is tossed 5 times and $H_0$ is rejected if more than 3 heads are obtained. The size and power of the test, respectively, are:
  1. $\left(\tfrac{3}{16},\ \tfrac{47}{128}\right)$
  2. $\left(\tfrac{3}{16},\ \tfrac{81}{128}\right)$
  3. $\left(\tfrac{9}{16},\ \tfrac{18}{128}\right)$
  4. $\left(\tfrac{9}{16},\ \tfrac{47}{128}\right)$
Show Answer

Answer: (B) $\left(\tfrac{3}{16},\ \tfrac{81}{128}\right)$. The rejection region is $X>3$, i.e. $X\ge 4$, where $X\sim\text{Bin}(5,p)$. Size $=P(X\ge4\mid p=\tfrac12)=\binom54(\tfrac12)^5+\binom55(\tfrac12)^5=\tfrac{5+1}{32}=\tfrac{6}{32}=\tfrac{3}{16}$. Power $=P(X\ge4\mid p=\tfrac34)=\binom54(\tfrac34)^4(\tfrac14)+(\tfrac34)^5=\tfrac{405}{1024}+\tfrac{243}{1024}=\tfrac{648}{1024}=\tfrac{81}{128}$. Hence $(\tfrac{3}{16},\tfrac{81}{128})$.

Q53. Match LIST-I with LIST-II.
LIST-ILIST-II
A. Chi-square testI. One-way ANOVA
B. Wilcoxon signed rank testII. Homogeneity in a contingency table
C. Mann–Whitney U-testIII. To compare the means of two independent populations
D. Kruskal–Wallis testIV. To compare the means of two related populations
Choose the correct answer:
  1. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
  2. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  3. A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
  4. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
Show Answer

Answer: (A) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I. The chi-square test checks homogeneity/independence in a contingency table (A–II). The Wilcoxon signed-rank test is the nonparametric test for two related (paired) samples (B–IV). The Mann–Whitney U-test compares two independent samples (C–III). The Kruskal–Wallis test is the nonparametric analogue of one-way ANOVA (D–I). Hence A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I.

Q54. Let $\underline{X}\'=(X_1\,X_2\,X_3)$ be a vector with $E(\underline{X})=\underline{0}$ and $\Sigma=\begin{pmatrix}1&\tfrac12&\tfrac12\\ \tfrac12&1&\tfrac12\\ \tfrac12&\tfrac12&1\end{pmatrix}$. Read the statements:
A. The first principal component is $Y_1=\tfrac{1}{\sqrt3}\sum_{i=1}^{3}X_i$.
B. The largest eigenvalue of $\Sigma$ is 3.
C. The first principal component explains approximately 66.7% of total variance.
D. The smallest eigenvalue is $\tfrac12$.
Choose the correct answer:
  1. A, B, C only
  2. A, B, D only
  3. B, C, D only
  4. A, C, D only
Show Answer

Answer: (D) A, C, D only. $\Sigma$ is an equicorrelation matrix (diagonal 1, off-diagonal $\rho=\tfrac12$) of order 3. Its eigenvalues are $1+(n-1)\rho=1+2(\tfrac12)=2$ (eigenvector $\tfrac{1}{\sqrt3}(1,1,1)$) and $1-\rho=\tfrac12$ (multiplicity 2). So A is true (first PC is the equally-weighted average direction), C is true ($2/\text{trace}=2/3\approx66.7\%$) and D is true (smallest eigenvalue $=\tfrac12$). B is false: the largest eigenvalue is 2, not 3. Hence A, C, D only.

Q55. In a plasma-etching experiment testing four levels of radio-frequency (RF) power, the one-way ANOVA table is:
SourceSum of squaresd.f.
RF Power66870.003
Error5344.0016
Total72214.0019
The calculated value of the F-ratio will be:
  1. 0.0150
  2. 12.5248
  3. 66.7365
  4. 0.0798
Show Answer

Answer: (C) 66.7365. $F=\dfrac{\text{MS}_{\text{treatment}}}{\text{MS}_{\text{error}}}=\dfrac{66870/3}{5344/16}=\dfrac{22290}{334}\approx 66.74$.

Q56. For testing $H_0:\mu=\begin{pmatrix}3.5\\2.5\end{pmatrix}$ based on three observation vectors $X_1=\begin{pmatrix}1\\2\end{pmatrix},\ X_2=\begin{pmatrix}4\\4\end{pmatrix},\ X_3=\begin{pmatrix}4\\3\end{pmatrix}$ from $N_2(\mu,\Sigma)$, the value of Hotelling\'s $T^2$ statistic is approximately:
  1. 2.33
  2. 3.5
  3. 7.0
  4. 7.5
Show Answer

Answer: (C) 7.0. Sample mean $\bar X=(3,3)$, so $d=\bar X-\mu_0=(-0.5,\,0.5)$. The sample covariance (divisor $n-1=2$) is $S=\begin{pmatrix}3&1.5\\1.5&1\end{pmatrix}$, with $\det S=0.75$ and $S^{-1}=\begin{pmatrix}4/3&-2\\-2&4\end{pmatrix}$. Then $d\'S^{-1}d=(-0.5)(-\tfrac53)+(0.5)(3)=\tfrac56+\tfrac32=\tfrac73$, and $T^2=n\,d\'S^{-1}d=3\cdot\tfrac73=7.0$.

Q57. Let $X_1,X_2,\dots,X_n$ be iid random variables each following the distribution with pdf $f(x\mid\theta)=e^{-(x-\theta)}$ for $x\ge\theta$ and 0 otherwise. Then:
A. $\bar X_n\xrightarrow{P}1+\theta$, where $\bar X_n=\tfrac1n\sum_{i=1}^n X_i$.
B. If $Y=\min(X_1,\dots,X_n)$ then $f(y)=n\,e^{-n(y-\theta)},\ y\ge\theta$.
C. $V(\bar X_n)=n$.
D. $\bar X_n\xrightarrow{L}\theta$.
Choose the correct answer:
  1. A, B only
  2. B, C, D only
  3. A, C, D only
  4. A, B, C only
Show Answer

Answer: (A) A, B only. This is a shifted (location) exponential with $E(X)=\theta+1$ and $V(X)=1$. A is true: by the WLLN $\bar X_n\xrightarrow{P}E(X)=1+\theta$. B is true: the minimum of $n$ iid unit-rate exponentials shifted by $\theta$ has rate $n$, so $f_Y(y)=n\,e^{-n(y-\theta)},\ y\ge\theta$. C is false: $V(\bar X_n)=V(X)/n=1/n$, not $n$. D is false: $\bar X_n$ converges to $1+\theta$, not $\theta$. Hence A, B only.

Q58. For the multiple linear regression model $y=X\beta+u$ ($y:n\times1,\ X:n\times k,\ \beta:k\times1,\ u:n\times1$) with $E(u)=0$ and $E(uu\')=\sigma^2 I_n$, let $P=X(X\'X)^{-1}X\'$ and $e=(I_n-P)y$. Then $E(ee\')$ is:
  1. $\sigma^2 I_n+X\beta\beta\'X\'$
  2. $\sigma^2(I_n-\beta)+X\beta\beta\'X\'$
  3. $\sigma^2 P$
  4. $\sigma^2(I_n-P)$
Show Answer

Answer: (D) $\sigma^2(I_n-P)$. $P$ is the (symmetric, idempotent) hat matrix, so $M=I_n-P$ is also symmetric and idempotent with $MX=0$. Hence $e=My=M(X\beta+u)=Mu$, and $E(ee\')=M\,E(uu\')\,M\'=\sigma^2 MM=\sigma^2 M=\sigma^2(I_n-P)$.

Q59. Arrange the following statements of an R programme in the correct order to make a valid program.
A. > y = A * x
B. > diag(y)
C. > x <- c(1, 2, 3)
D. [1] 1 10 27
E. > A <- matrix(c(1:9), 3, 3)
Choose the correct answer:
  1. E, B, C, A, D
  2. E, A, C, B, D
  3. D, E, C, B, A
  4. E, C, A, B, D
Show Answer

Answer: (D) E, C, A, B, D. A valid session must first create the objects, then operate on them, then print output. First define the matrix (E), then the vector (C); compute the element-wise product $y=A*x$ (A); extract its diagonal with diag(y) (B); the console then prints the result (D). Hence the order is E, C, A, B, D.

Q60. A part of an R program is given below:
> x <- 3
> f = function(y) {
  x <- 5
  x + y
}
> f(4)
The output of the program is:
  1. 7
  2. 9
  3. 4
  4. 5
Show Answer

Answer: (B) 9. Inside the function the assignment x <- 5 creates a local variable that shadows the global x = 3. The last evaluated expression x + y uses this local value, so f(4) returns $5+4=9$.

Q61. Let $A_1,A_2,\dots,A_n$ be $n$ independent events such that $P(A_i)=1-\dfrac{1}{2^i},\ i=1,2,\dots,n$. Then the probability that at least one of the events $A_1,A_2,\dots,A_n$ occurs is:
  1. $\dfrac{1}{2^n}$
  2. $1-\dfrac{1}{2^n}$
  3. $\dfrac{1}{2^{n(n+1)/2}}$
  4. $1-\dfrac{1}{2^{n(n+1)/2}}$
Show Answer

Answer: (D) $1-\dfrac{1}{2^{n(n+1)/2}}$. $P(\text{at least one})=1-\prod_{i=1}^{n}P(A_i^c)=1-\prod_{i=1}^{n}\dfrac{1}{2^i}=1-\dfrac{1}{2^{1+2+\cdots+n}}=1-\dfrac{1}{2^{n(n+1)/2}}$.

Q62. Consider the process $y_t=0.6\,y_{t-1}+0.4\,y_{t-2}+\epsilon_t$, with $E(\epsilon_t)=0,\ E(\epsilon_t^2)=\sigma^2_\epsilon$. Then the ACF of $\{\Delta y_t\}$, say $r_k$, is:
  1. $r_k=(0.6)^k$
  2. $r_k=(0.4)^k$
  3. $r_k=(-0.4)^k$
  4. $r_k=(-0.6)^k$
Show Answer

Answer: (C) $r_k=(-0.4)^k$. The AR polynomial factors as $1-0.6B-0.4B^2=(1-B)(1+0.4B)$, which contains a unit root. So $(1+0.4B)(1-B)y_t=\epsilon_t$, i.e. $(1+0.4B)\Delta y_t=\epsilon_t$. Hence $\Delta y_t=-0.4\,\Delta y_{t-1}+\epsilon_t$ is an AR(1) with parameter $\phi=-0.4$, whose autocorrelation function is $r_k=\phi^k=(-0.4)^k$.

Q63. Consider the following statements regarding different sampling methods:
A. Simple random sampling with replacement is more efficient than simple random sampling without replacement.
B. In the ratio method of estimation, the usual ratio estimator $\bar y_R$ of the population mean $\bar Y$ is a biased estimator.
C. If the intraclass correlation between elements of a cluster is negative, cluster sampling is more efficient than SRSWOR.
D. If the intraclass correlation between units of a column is greater than $\dfrac{-1}{kn-1}$, systematic sampling is superior to simple random sampling.
Choose the correct answer:
  1. B and C only
  2. B and D only
  3. A and B only
  4. C and D only
Show Answer

Answer: (A) B and C only. A is false: SRSWOR is more efficient than SRSWR (the finite population correction reduces the variance). B is true: the ratio estimator is biased, with bias of order $1/n$. C is true: cluster sampling beats SRSWOR when the intraclass correlation is negative (elements within a cluster are dissimilar). D is false: systematic sampling is superior only when the intraclass correlation is less than $-1/(kn-1)$, not greater. Hence B and C only.

Q64. Match LIST-I with LIST-II.
LIST-ILIST-II
A. Simple Random SamplingI. To give due weightage to larger units
B. Stratified Random SamplingII. Sampling frame is not available
C. Cluster SamplingIII. Homogeneous population
D. Sampling with varying probabilitiesIV. Heterogeneous population
Choose the correct answer:
  1. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  2. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  3. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  4. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
Show Answer

Answer: (D) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I. Simple random sampling works best for a homogeneous population (A–III). Stratified sampling is used for a heterogeneous population, splitting it into homogeneous strata (B–IV). Cluster sampling is adopted when a complete sampling frame of elements is unavailable (C–II). Sampling with varying probabilities (PPS) gives due weightage to larger units (D–I). Hence A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I.

Q65. Let $X_{(1)}\le X_{(2)}\le\cdots\le X_{(r)}$ be the first $r$ observed order statistics of a random sample of size $n$ from the exponential distribution with mean $\theta$. Consider $T_1=\dfrac1r\sum_{i=1}^{r}X_{(i)}$ and $T_2=\dfrac{X_{(r)}}{r}$. Which of the following is an unbiased estimate of $\theta$?
  1. $T_1$
  2. $T_1+(r-1)T_2$
  3. $T_1+(n-1)T_2$
  4. $T_1+(n-r)T_2$
Show Answer

Answer: (D) $T_1+(n-r)T_2$. Under Type-II censoring at the $r$th failure, the total time on test $S=\sum_{i=1}^{r}X_{(i)}+(n-r)X_{(r)}$ satisfies $E(S)=r\theta$, so $S/r$ is unbiased for $\theta$. Now $S/r=\dfrac{1}{r}\sum X_{(i)}+(n-r)\dfrac{X_{(r)}}{r}=T_1+(n-r)T_2$.

Q66. For testing a hypothesis, the different steps are given below (A to E). Arrange the steps in proper sequence.
A. Checking the assumptions of the test.
B. Calculation of the test statistic.
C. Formation of the hypothesis.
D. Comparing with the tabulated values.
E. Drawing the inference.
Choose the correct answer:
  1. A, C, B, D, E
  2. C, A, D, B, E
  3. A, C, D, B, E
  4. C, A, B, D, E
Show Answer

Answer: (D) C, A, B, D, E. A test proceeds as: first form the hypotheses (C), then check the assumptions of the chosen test (A), compute the test statistic (B), compare with the tabulated critical value (D), and finally draw the inference (E). Hence C, A, B, D, E.

Q67. The moment generating function of a random variable $X$ is given by $M_X(t)=e^{2t(1+t)}$. The fourth-order central moment of the distribution should be:
  1. 0
  2. 3
  3. 12
  4. 48
Show Answer

Answer: (D) 48. $M_X(t)=e^{2t+2t^2}$ matches the normal MGF $e^{\mu t+\sigma^2 t^2/2}$ with $\mu=2$ and $\sigma^2=4$. For a normal distribution the fourth central moment is $\mu_4=3\sigma^4=3(4)^2=48$.

Q68. Given the function $f(x)=\begin{cases}x^2+1,&0\le x\le1\\ 3-x,&1<x\le2\end{cases}$, consider the statements about $f(x)$:
A. $f(x)$ is continuous and differentiable at all points.
B. $f(x)$ is not differentiable at $x=1$.
C. Rolle\'s theorem is applicable on $[0,2]$.
D. Rolle\'s theorem is not applicable on $[0,2]$.
Choose the correct answer:
  1. A, B only
  2. A, B, C only
  3. A, C only
  4. B, D only
Show Answer

Answer: (D) B, D only. At $x=1$: left value $1^2+1=2$, right value $3-1=2$, so $f$ is continuous. But the left derivative $2x\big|_{1}=2$ and right derivative $-1$ differ, so $f$ is not differentiable at $x=1$ (B true, A false). Rolle\'s theorem needs differentiability on the whole open interval; since it fails at $x=1\in(0,2)$, Rolle\'s theorem is not applicable (D true, C false) — even though $f(0)=f(2)=1$. Hence B, D only.

Q69. Let $y_1=\beta_1+\beta_2+u_1,\ y_2=2\beta_1+u_2,\ y_3=\beta_1-\beta_2+u_3$ with $V(u_i)=\sigma^2,\ i=1,2,3$. Then the best linear unbiased estimators of $\beta_1$ and $\beta_2$ are, respectively:
  1. $\dfrac{y_1+2y_2+y_3}{2},\ \dfrac{y_1-y_3}{6}$
  2. $\dfrac16(y_1+2y_2+y_3),\ \dfrac12(y_1-y_3)$
  3. $\dfrac{y_1+2y_2+y_3}{2},\ \dfrac{y_1+y_3}{6}$
  4. $6(y_1+y_2+y_3),\ 2(y_1-y_3)$
Show Answer

Answer: (B) $\dfrac16(y_1+2y_2+y_3),\ \dfrac12(y_1-y_3)$. With design matrix $X=\begin{pmatrix}1&1\\2&0\\1&-1\end{pmatrix}$, the errors are homoscedastic and uncorrelated, so the BLUE is OLS: $\hat\beta=(X\'X)^{-1}X\'y$. Here $X\'X=\begin{pmatrix}6&0\\0&2\end{pmatrix}$ and $X\'y=\begin{pmatrix}y_1+2y_2+y_3\\ y_1-y_3\end{pmatrix}$, giving $\hat\beta_1=\tfrac16(y_1+2y_2+y_3)$ and $\hat\beta_2=\tfrac12(y_1-y_3)$.

Q70. Let $X$ follow an exponential distribution with mean $\tfrac1\lambda$ and $Y\mid X=x$ follow a Poisson distribution with parameter $x$. Then $\mathrm{Var}(Y)$ equals:
  1. $\dfrac{\lambda(\lambda+1)}{\lambda^2}$
  2. $\dfrac{\lambda^2}{\lambda+1}$
  3. $\lambda(\lambda+1)$
  4. $\dfrac{\lambda+1}{\lambda^2}$
Show Answer

Answer: (D) $\dfrac{\lambda+1}{\lambda^2}$. Using the law of total variance with $X\sim\text{Exp}$ (mean $1/\lambda$, variance $1/\lambda^2$) and $Y\mid X\sim\text{Poisson}(X)$: $\mathrm{Var}(Y)=E[\mathrm{Var}(Y\mid X)]+\mathrm{Var}[E(Y\mid X)]=E(X)+\mathrm{Var}(X)=\dfrac1\lambda+\dfrac{1}{\lambda^2}=\dfrac{\lambda+1}{\lambda^2}$.

Q71. Let $X=(X_1,X_2,X_3)\'\sim N_3(\mu,\Sigma)$ with $\mu=\begin{pmatrix}2\\-2\\1\end{pmatrix}$ and $\Sigma=\begin{pmatrix}1&1&1\\1&3&2\\1&2&2\end{pmatrix}$. Write $X=\begin{pmatrix}X_1\\X^{(2)}\end{pmatrix}$ with $X^{(2)}=\begin{pmatrix}X_2\\X_3\end{pmatrix}$. Then the conditional mean and conditional variance of $X^{(2)}$ given $x_1=1$ are, respectively:
  1. $\begin{pmatrix}-2\\1\end{pmatrix},\ \begin{pmatrix}3&2\\2&2\end{pmatrix}$
  2. $\begin{pmatrix}-3\\0\end{pmatrix},\ \begin{pmatrix}2&1\\1&1\end{pmatrix}$
  3. $\begin{pmatrix}1\\-2\end{pmatrix},\ \begin{pmatrix}2&2\\2&3\end{pmatrix}$
  4. $\begin{pmatrix}0\\-3\end{pmatrix},\ \begin{pmatrix}1&1\\1&2\end{pmatrix}$
Show Answer

Answer: (B) $\begin{pmatrix}-3\\0\end{pmatrix},\ \begin{pmatrix}2&1\\1&1\end{pmatrix}$. Partition with $\mu_1=2,\ \mu_2=(-2,1)\',\ \Sigma_{11}=1,\ \Sigma_{21}=(1,1)\',\ \Sigma_{22}=\begin{pmatrix}3&2\\2&2\end{pmatrix}$. Conditional mean $=\mu_2+\Sigma_{21}\Sigma_{11}^{-1}(x_1-\mu_1)=(-2,1)\'+(1,1)\'(1-2)=(-3,0)\'$. Conditional variance $=\Sigma_{22}-\Sigma_{21}\Sigma_{11}^{-1}\Sigma_{12}=\begin{pmatrix}3&2\\2&2\end{pmatrix}-\begin{pmatrix}1&1\\1&1\end{pmatrix}=\begin{pmatrix}2&1\\1&1\end{pmatrix}$.

Q72. Match LIST-I with LIST-II.
LIST-I (R command)LIST-II (output)
A. > x <- c(12,4,-8,54,23,-51); xI. [1] 4 3 2 6 5 1
B. > sort(c(12,4,-8,54,23,-51))II. [1] 6 3 2 1 5 4
C. > rank(c(12,4,-8,54,23,-51))III. [1] 12 4 -8 54 23 -51
D. > order(c(12,4,-8,54,23,-51))IV. [1] -51 -8 4 12 23 54
Choose the correct answer:
  1. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  2. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  3. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  4. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
Show Answer

Answer: (C) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II. x just echoes the vector (A–III). sort returns the values in ascending order $-51,-8,4,12,23,54$ (B–IV). rank gives each element\'s ascending rank: $4,3,2,6,5,1$ (C–I). order gives the indices that sort the vector: $6,3,2,1,5,4$ (D–II). Hence A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II.

Q73. Let $X$ be a non-negative random variable with distribution function $F(x)$. Read the statements:
A. $\displaystyle\int_0^\infty 2x[1-F(x)]\,dx=E(X^2)$
B. $\displaystyle\int_0^\infty [1-F(x)]\,dx=E(X)$
C. $E\!\left(\tfrac1X\right)\le\dfrac{1}{E(X)}$
D. $E(\log X)\le\log E(X)$
Choose the correct answer:
  1. A, B and C
  2. B, C and D
  3. A, B and D
  4. C and D
Show Answer

Answer: (C) A, B and D. For a non-negative random variable the tail-integral identities give $E(X)=\int_0^\infty[1-F(x)]dx$ (B true) and $E(X^2)=\int_0^\infty 2x[1-F(x)]dx$ (A true). By Jensen\'s inequality with the convex function $1/x$, $E(1/X)\ge 1/E(X)$, so C (with $\le$) is false. With the concave function $\log$, $E(\log X)\le\log E(X)$, so D is true. Hence A, B and D.

Q74. Let $N_1(t)$ and $N_2(t)$ be two independent Poisson processes with parameters $\lambda$ and $2\lambda$ respectively. Then $P\big(N_1(t)=1\mid N_1(t)+N_2(t)=4\big)$ is:
  1. $\lambda e^{-\lambda}$
  2. $\dfrac{2^5}{3^4}$
  3. $3\lambda e^{-3\lambda}$
  4. $\dfrac{4}{3^4}$
Show Answer

Answer: (B) $\dfrac{2^5}{3^4}$. Given the total $N_1+N_2=n$, $N_1$ is Binomial$(n,p)$ with $p=\dfrac{\lambda}{\lambda+2\lambda}=\tfrac13$. Hence $P(N_1=1\mid \text{sum}=4)=\binom41(\tfrac13)(\tfrac23)^3=4\cdot\tfrac13\cdot\tfrac{8}{27}=\tfrac{32}{81}=\dfrac{2^5}{3^4}$.

Q75. The prices of crude oil and gasoline (Rs/l) over a 10-year period are given below:
YearCrude oilGasoline
177.9165.46
282.0064.18
389.2065.66
473.3759.23
566.4265.68
680.1069.55
769.7867.81
872.0967.39
992.1482.06
1096.3184.40
The value of Spearman\'s rank correlation coefficient between the prices was:
  1. 0.254
  2. 0.345
  3. 0.456
  4. 0.565
Show Answer

Answer: (B) 0.345. Ranking each series and taking rank differences $d$ gives $\sum d^2=108$ (the year-by-year $d^2$ values are 4, 25, 16, 9, 16, 4, 25, 9, 0, 0). Then $\rho=1-\dfrac{6\sum d^2}{n(n^2-1)}=1-\dfrac{6\times108}{10\times99}=1-0.6545\approx0.345$.

Q76. If $X_1,X_2,\dots,X_n$ are iid $N(\mu,\sigma^2)$, then the quantity $\dfrac{\bar X-\mu}{\sigma/\sqrt n}$ can be considered a pivot to obtain a confidence interval for:
  1. $\mu$ when $\sigma^2$ is known
  2. $\mu$ when $\sigma^2$ is unknown
  3. $\sigma^2$ when $\mu$ is known
  4. both $\mu$ and $\sigma^2$
Show Answer

Answer: (A) $\mu$ when $\sigma^2$ is known. $\dfrac{\bar X-\mu}{\sigma/\sqrt n}\sim N(0,1)$, whose distribution is free of unknown parameters. It can serve as a pivot only when $\sigma$ is a known constant; then it depends on the data and on the single unknown $\mu$, giving a confidence interval for $\mu$. Hence it is a pivot for $\mu$ when $\sigma^2$ is known.

Q77. Match LIST-I with LIST-II.
LIST-ILIST-II
A. Testing equality of means of two populations when population variances are knownI. $\chi^2$-test
B. Testing equality of variances of two normal populationsII. t-test
C. Testing equality of several population proportionsIII. F-test
D. Testing significance of mean in a single population with unknown varianceIV. Z-test
Choose the correct answer:
  1. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  2. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  3. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  4. A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
Show Answer

Answer: (C) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II. Two means with known variances → Z-test (A–IV). Ratio of two normal variances → F-test (B–III). Equality of several proportions → $\chi^2$-test (C–I). Single mean with unknown variance → t-test (D–II). Hence A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II.

Q78. The maximum value of the function $f(x)=2^{x(1-x)},\ 0\le x\le1$, is:
  1. 1
  2. $\sqrt2$
  3. 2
  4. $2^{1/4}$
Show Answer

Answer: (D) $2^{1/4}$. Since $2^{u}$ is increasing, maximize the exponent $g(x)=x(1-x)=x-x^2$. Setting $g\'(x)=1-2x=0$ gives $x=\tfrac12$, where $g=\tfrac14$. Hence the maximum of $f$ is $2^{1/4}$.

Q79. Let $X_1,X_2,\dots,X_n$ be a random sample from an exponential distribution with pdf $f(x,\theta)=\theta e^{-\theta x},\ x>0,\ \theta>0$. For testing $H_0:\theta=\theta_0$ against $H_1:\theta\ne\theta_0$, the UMP critical region of size $\alpha$ (with $\chi^2_{\alpha,n}$ the upper $\alpha$ point of the $\chi^2$ distribution) is given by:
  1. $\sum_{i=1}^n X_i\le\dfrac{1}{2\theta_0}\chi^2_{1-\alpha,2n}$
  2. $\sum_{i=1}^n X_i\ge\dfrac{1}{2\theta_0}\chi^2_{\alpha,2n}$
  3. $\dfrac{1}{2\theta_0}\chi^2_{\alpha,2n}\le\sum_{i=1}^n X_i\le\dfrac{1}{2\theta_0}\chi^2_{1-\alpha,2n}$
  4. No UMP test exists
Show Answer

Answer: (D) No UMP test exists. The exponential family has monotone likelihood ratio, so a UMP test exists for a one-sided alternative. But for the two-sided alternative $H_1:\theta\ne\theta_0$ the best rejection region differs on the two sides, so no single test is uniformly most powerful. Hence no UMP test exists (only a UMP unbiased test does).

Q80. The interval of convergence of the power series $\displaystyle\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{|x-5|^n}{(n+1)(n+2)}$ is:
  1. (-5, 5)
  2. (0, 1)
  3. (4, 6)
  4. $\infty$
Show Answer

Answer: (C) (4, 6). With $t=|x-5|$ and $a_n=\dfrac{1}{(n+1)(n+2)}$, the ratio test gives $\lim\left|\dfrac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}\right|=\lim\dfrac{(n+1)(n+2)}{(n+2)(n+3)}=1$, so the radius of convergence is 1. Thus the series converges for $|x-5|<1$, i.e. $4<x<6$.

Q81. Let $\lambda$ be an eigenvalue of $A$ and $x$ the corresponding eigenvector. Then:
  1. $\lambda$ is an eigenvalue of $A^{-1}$ and the corresponding eigenvector is $x$
  2. $\lambda^{-1}$ is an eigenvalue of $A^{-1}$ and the corresponding eigenvector is $x$
  3. $\lambda$ is an eigenvalue of $A^{-1}$ but $x$ is not the corresponding eigenvector
  4. $\lambda^{-1}$ is an eigenvalue of $A$ but $x$ is not the corresponding eigenvector
Show Answer

Answer: (B) $\lambda^{-1}$ is an eigenvalue of $A^{-1}$ and the corresponding eigenvector is $x$. From $Ax=\lambda x$ (with $\lambda\ne0$ since $A$ is invertible), multiply by $A^{-1}$: $x=\lambda A^{-1}x$, so $A^{-1}x=\tfrac{1}{\lambda}x$. Thus $\lambda^{-1}$ is an eigenvalue of $A^{-1}$ with the same eigenvector $x$.

Q82. Let $\{F_\theta:\theta\in\Theta\}$ be a family of distribution functions. Let $h$ be an unbiased estimator of $\theta$ with $E_\theta h^2<\infty$, and let $T$ be a sufficient statistic for $F_\theta$. Which of the following are TRUE?
A. $E(h\mid T)$ is unbiased for $\theta$.
B. $\mathrm{Var}\{E(h\mid T)\}\le\mathrm{Var}(h)$.
C. $E(h\mid T)$ is the unique UMVUE of $\theta$.
D. $E(h\mid T)$ is independent of $\theta$.
Choose the correct answer:
  1. A, B only
  2. A, B, C only
  3. B, C, D only
  4. A, B, D only
Show Answer

Answer: (D) A, B, D only. By the Rao–Blackwell theorem, $E(h\mid T)$ is unbiased (A) and has variance no larger than $h$ (B). Because $T$ is sufficient, the conditional distribution given $T$ is free of $\theta$, so $E(h\mid T)$ is a genuine statistic not depending on $\theta$ (D). Statement C is false: uniqueness/UMVUE status requires $T$ to be complete sufficient (Lehmann–Scheffé), which is not assumed here. Hence A, B, D only.

Q83. Arrange the following statements of an R program in the correct order to make a valid program.
A. > y = x
B. > x <- c(1, -1, 3.5, 2)
C. [1] 1.00 1.00 12.25 4.00
D. > y^2
Choose the correct answer:
  1. A, B, C, D
  2. A, D, B, C
  3. C, B, A, D
  4. B, A, D, C
Show Answer

Answer: (D) B, A, D, C. First create the vector $x=(1,-1,3.5,2)$ (B), copy it to $y$ (A), then evaluate $y^2$ (D); the console prints $(1,1,12.25,4)$ (C). Hence B, A, D, C.

Q84. Suppose, for a Markov chain, $C_1$ is the communicating class of state $i$ and $C_2$ is the communicating class of state $j$. State $k$ communicates with $i$ and $j$. Then:
  1. $C_1\cap C_2=\Phi$
  2. $C_1=C_2$
  3. $k$ belongs to neither $C_1$ nor $C_2$
  4. $k$ has a different period than that of $i$ and $j$
Show Answer

Answer: (B) $C_1=C_2$. Communication of states is an equivalence relation (reflexive, symmetric, transitive). Since $k\leftrightarrow i$ and $k\leftrightarrow j$, transitivity gives $i\leftrightarrow j$, so $i$ and $j$ lie in the same communicating class. Hence $C_1=C_2$ (and $k$ belongs to it, states in a class share the same period).

Q85. Match LIST-I (statistician) with LIST-II (contribution).
LIST-ILIST-II
A. P. C. MahalanobisI. Partially Balanced Incomplete Block Design (PBIBD)
B. P. V. SukhatmeII. Multivariate hypothesis testing
C. R. C. BoseIII. Ordered estimates in sampling with varying probabilities and WOR
D. S. N. RoyIV. Distance measure in multivariate analysis
Choose the correct answer:
  1. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  2. A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
  3. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  4. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
Show Answer

Answer: (C) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II. P. C. Mahalanobis — the Mahalanobis distance in multivariate analysis (A–IV). P. V. Sukhatme — sampling theory, including ordered estimates in PPS sampling without replacement (B–III). R. C. Bose — partially balanced incomplete block designs (C–I). S. N. Roy — the union–intersection principle and largest-root test in multivariate hypothesis testing (D–II). Hence A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II.

Q86. Given the R program:
f = function(n) {
  x = 1
  for (i in 1:n) {
    x = x * i
  }
  x
}
f(5)
Which of the following is the output?
  1. 1
  2. 5
  3. 20
  4. 120
Show Answer

Answer: (D) 120. The loop multiplies $x$ by $i$ for $i=1,2,3,4,5$, computing the factorial $5!=1\cdot2\cdot3\cdot4\cdot5=120$. Hence f(5) returns 120.

Q87. Let $X\sim N_3(\mu,\Sigma)$ with $\mu\'=[1\ 0\ -1]$ and $\Sigma=\begin{pmatrix}1&-1&0\\-1&2&0\\0&0&3\end{pmatrix}$. Then which of the following random variables are independent?
A. $X_1$ and $X_2$
B. $(X_1,X_2)$ and $X_3$
C. $X_2$ and $(X_2+2X_1)$
D. $\dfrac{X_2+X_3}{2}$ and $\dfrac{X_1+X_2}{2}$
Choose the correct answer:
  1. A, B only
  2. A, D only
  3. B, C only
  4. B, D only
Show Answer

Answer: (C) B, C only. For jointly normal variables, independence $\Leftrightarrow$ zero covariance. A: $\mathrm{Cov}(X_1,X_2)=-1\ne0$ → dependent. B: $\mathrm{Cov}(X_3,X_1)=\mathrm{Cov}(X_3,X_2)=0$, so $X_3$ is independent of $(X_1,X_2)$ → true. C: $\mathrm{Cov}(X_2,X_2+2X_1)=\mathrm{Var}(X_2)+2\mathrm{Cov}(X_2,X_1)=2+2(-1)=0$ → independent. D: $\tfrac14[\mathrm{Cov}(X_2,X_1)+\mathrm{Var}(X_2)+\mathrm{Cov}(X_3,X_1)+\mathrm{Cov}(X_3,X_2)]=\tfrac14(-1+2+0+0)=\tfrac14\ne0$ → dependent. Hence B, C only.

Q88. Which of the following is not a consequence of near multicollinearity on the performance of the ordinary least squares estimator?
  1. Small changes in data produce large changes in estimates
  2. Estimates are large in magnitude
  3. Estimates are biased
  4. Estimates have high standard errors and low significance values, though $R^2$ is very high
Show Answer

Answer: (C) Estimates are biased. Near multicollinearity inflates the variances of the OLS estimates — producing unstable, large-magnitude coefficients with high standard errors, insignificant $t$-values despite a high $R^2$. However, OLS estimates remain unbiased under multicollinearity; only their precision suffers. Hence “estimates are biased” is not a consequence.

Q89. Let $X_1,X_2,Y_1,Y_2,Y_3$ be independent random vectors with $X_i\sim N_4(0,\Sigma_1)$ and $Y_j\sim N_4(0,\Sigma_2)$. Define $X_{4\times2}=(X_1\ X_2),\ Y_{4\times3}=(Y_1\ Y_2\ Y_3)$ and $Z=\Sigma_1^{-1/2}XX\'\Sigma_1^{-1/2}+\Sigma_2^{-1/2}YY\'\Sigma_2^{-1/2}$. If $W_p(n,\Sigma)$ denotes a $p$-variate Wishart distribution with $n$ degrees of freedom, then:
  1. $Z\sim W_5(5,I_5)$
  2. $Z\sim W_4(5,I_4)$
  3. $Z\sim W_4(4,I_5)$
  4. $Z\sim W_5(4,I_4)$
Show Answer

Answer: (B) $Z\sim W_4(5,I_4)$. $XX\'=\sum_{i=1}^{2}X_iX_i\'\sim W_4(2,\Sigma_1)$, so $\Sigma_1^{-1/2}XX\'\Sigma_1^{-1/2}\sim W_4(2,I_4)$. Likewise $\Sigma_2^{-1/2}YY\'\Sigma_2^{-1/2}\sim W_4(3,I_4)$. Independent Wisharts with the same scale matrix add their degrees of freedom, giving $Z\sim W_4(2+3,I_4)=W_4(5,I_4)$.

Q90. Let $X$ and $Y$ be jointly distributed random variables with joint pdf $f(x,y)=\begin{cases}\tfrac14(1+cxy),&|x|<1,\ |y|<1\\0,&\text{otherwise}\end{cases}$ Then:
A. $X$ and $Y$ are independent.
B. $f_X(x)=\tfrac12,\ -1<x<1$.
C. $X^2$ and $Y^2$ are independent.
D. $E(X^2Y^2)=\tfrac19$.
Choose the correct answer:
  1. A, B, C only
  2. B, C, D only
  3. A, B only
  4. A, D only
Show Answer

Answer: (B) B, C, D only. Marginals: $f_X(x)=\int_{-1}^1\tfrac14(1+cxy)\,dy=\tfrac12$ (and similarly $f_Y(y)=\tfrac12$), so B is true. But $f_X f_Y=\tfrac14\ne\tfrac14(1+cxy)$ (for $c\ne0$), so $X,Y$ are dependent — A is false. Summing the density over the four sign-combinations of $(x,y)$ shows $(|X|,|Y|)$ is uniform on $(0,1)^2$, hence $X^2$ and $Y^2$ are independent (C true). Finally $E(X^2Y^2)=\tfrac14\big[(\int x^2)(\int y^2)+c(\int x^3)(\int y^3)\big]=\tfrac14\cdot\tfrac49=\tfrac19$ (D true). Hence B, C, D only.

Q91. Consider the following statements for the function $f(x)=x(x-3)^2,\ 0\le x\le3$.
A. $f(x)$ is continuous on $[0,3]$.
B. $f(x)$ is differentiable on $(0,3)$.
C. $\exists$ a number $C\in(0,3)$ such that $f\'(C)=0$.
D. Rolle\'s theorem is satisfied.
Choose the correct answer:
  1. A, B only
  2. A, C only
  3. A, B, C only
  4. A, B, C, D only
Show Answer

Answer: (D) A, B, C, D only. $f$ is a polynomial, hence continuous on $[0,3]$ (A) and differentiable on $(0,3)$ (B). Also $f(0)=0=f(3)$, so all three hypotheses of Rolle\'s theorem hold (D). Indeed $f\'(x)=3(x-1)(x-3)$ vanishes at $C=1\in(0,3)$ (C). Hence all of A, B, C, D are correct.

Q92. Let $X\sim N_3(0,\Sigma)$ where $\Sigma=\begin{pmatrix}1&\tfrac12&\tfrac12\\ \tfrac12&1&\tfrac12\\ \tfrac12&\tfrac12&1\end{pmatrix}$. Then:
A. $R_{3.12}=R_{2.13}$
B. $r_{13.2}=\tfrac13$
C. $R_{1.23}=\tfrac23$
D. $r_{23.1}=r_{13.2}$
Choose the correct answer:
  1. A, B only
  2. B, C only
  3. B, C, D only
  4. A, B, D only
Show Answer

Answer: (D) A, B, D only. Here every simple correlation is $\tfrac12$. Partial correlation $r_{13.2}=\dfrac{r_{13}-r_{12}r_{23}}{\sqrt{(1-r_{12}^2)(1-r_{23}^2)}}=\dfrac{\tfrac12-\tfrac14}{\tfrac34}=\tfrac13$ (B true); by symmetry $r_{23.1}=\tfrac13=r_{13.2}$ (D true) and the multiple correlations $R_{3.12}=R_{2.13}$ are equal (A true). For C, $R^2_{1.23}=\dfrac{r_{12}^2+r_{13}^2-2r_{12}r_{13}r_{23}}{1-r_{23}^2}=\dfrac{1/4}{3/4}=\tfrac13$, so $R_{1.23}=1/\sqrt3\approx0.577\ne\tfrac23$ (C false; note it is $1-R^2_{1.23}=\tfrac23$). Hence A, B, D only.

Q93. For the random walk (with drift) model $y_t=\mu+y_{t-1}+\epsilon_t,\ t=1,2,\dots$, where $\{\epsilon_t\}$ is a purely random process with $E(\epsilon_t)=0,\ E(\epsilon_t^2)=\sigma^2_\epsilon$, the mean and variance of $y_t$ are, respectively:
  1. $\mu,\ \sigma^2_\epsilon$
  2. $t\mu,\ \sigma^2_\epsilon$
  3. $\mu,\ t\sigma^2_\epsilon$
  4. $t\mu,\ t\sigma^2_\epsilon$
Show Answer

Answer: (D) $t\mu,\ t\sigma^2_\epsilon$. Iterating from $y_0=0$ gives $y_t=\mu t+\sum_{i=1}^{t}\epsilon_i$. Hence $E(y_t)=t\mu$ and, since the $\epsilon_i$ are uncorrelated, $\mathrm{Var}(y_t)=t\sigma^2_\epsilon$ — both grow with $t$, reflecting the non-stationarity of a random walk.

Q94. Let $r$ be the sample correlation coefficient based on $n$ pairs of observations. Then:
A. The distribution of $r$ is skewed for values of $r$ closer to 1.
B. The distribution of $r$ is non-degenerate for $-1\le r\le1$.
C. $r$ has a U-shaped arcsine distribution when $n=3$.
D. $r$ follows a $U(-1,1)$ distribution when $n=4$.
Choose the correct answer:
  1. A, B and C only
  2. B, D only
  3. A, C, D only
  4. A, B only
Show Answer

Answer: (C) A, C, D only. Under $\rho=0$ the null density is $f(r)\propto(1-r^2)^{(n-4)/2},\ -1<r<1$. For $n=3$ the exponent is $-\tfrac12$, giving the U-shaped arcsine density (C true); for $n=4$ the exponent is 0, giving the uniform $U(-1,1)$ density (D true). The sampling distribution of $r$ also becomes increasingly skewed as the true correlation approaches $\pm1$ (A true). Statement B is the odd one out — $r$ is supported on the open interval and the blanket “non-degenerate on $[-1,1]$” claim is not the accepted correct statement. Hence A, C, D only.

Q95. Let $x_1,x_2,\dots,x_n$ be a random sample of size $n$ from $f(x,\theta)=\theta e^{-\theta x},\ \theta>0,\ x>0$ (0 otherwise). Then:
A. $\dfrac{n}{\sum_{i=1}^n x_i}$ is the maximum likelihood estimate of $\theta$.
B. $\dfrac{n-1}{\sum_{i=1}^n x_i}$ is the UMVUE of $\theta$.
C. $\sum_{i=1}^n x_i$ is the sufficient statistic for $\theta$.
D. $\sum_{i=1}^n x_i$ follows a Gamma distribution with parameter $(1,\theta)$.
Choose the correct answer:
  1. A, B, D only
  2. B, C, D only
  3. A, B, C only
  4. A, C only
Show Answer

Answer: (C) A, B, C only. The log-likelihood $n\ln\theta-\theta\sum x_i$ is maximised at $\hat\theta=n/\sum x_i$ (A true). By factorization $\sum x_i$ is sufficient (C true), and it is complete, with $\sum x_i\sim\text{Gamma(shape }n,\text{ rate }\theta)$ — not $(1,\theta)$ — so D is false. Since $E(1/\sum x_i)=\theta/(n-1)$, the estimator $(n-1)/\sum x_i$ is unbiased and, being a function of the complete sufficient statistic, is the UMVUE (B true). Hence A, B, C only.

Q96. Using Lahiri\'s method to draw a sample of size $N$ with probabilities proportional to $X_i$ and with replacement, the probability of selecting the $i$th unit $(i=1,2,\dots,N)$ at any given draw is:
  1. $\dfrac{1}{N\bar X}$
  2. $\dfrac{2}{N\bar X}$
  3. $\dfrac{X_i}{N\bar X}$
  4. $\dfrac{X_i^2}{N\bar X}$
Show Answer

Answer: (C) $\dfrac{X_i}{N\bar X}$. In PPS (probability proportional to size) selection, unit $i$ is chosen with probability $\dfrac{X_i}{\sum_{j=1}^N X_j}$. Since $\sum_j X_j=N\bar X$, this equals $\dfrac{X_i}{N\bar X}$. Lahiri\'s method is precisely a mechanism that realizes these selection probabilities.

Q97. The rank of the matrix $\begin{pmatrix}2&6&4&2\\3&7&4&2\\4&8&4&2\\5&9&4&2\end{pmatrix}$ is:
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
Show Answer

Answer: (B) 2. Every row equals $R_1+k(1,1,0,0)$ for $k=0,1,2,3$, so only two rows are linearly independent (equivalently, column 3 $=2\times$column 4 and column 2 $=$ column 1 $+$ column 3). Hence the rank is 2.

Q98. Let $X_1,X_2,\dots,X_n$ be a random sample from Poisson$(\lambda)$. Let $\bar X=\tfrac1n\sum_{i=1}^n X_i$ and $S^2=\tfrac{1}{n-1}\sum_{i=1}^n (X_i-\bar X)^2$. Consider:
A. $\bar X$ is unbiased for $\lambda$.
B. $S^2$ is unbiased for $\lambda$.
C. $\bar X+S^2$ is unbiased for $\lambda$.
D. $0.3\,\bar X+0.7\,S^2$ is unbiased for $\lambda$.
Choose the correct answer:
  1. A only
  2. A, B only
  3. A, C, D only
  4. A, B, D only
Show Answer

Answer: (D) A, B, D only. For Poisson$(\lambda)$ both the mean and the variance equal $\lambda$, so $E(\bar X)=\lambda$ (A) and $E(S^2)=\lambda$ (B). Any weighted average $a\bar X+(1-a)S^2$ with weights summing to 1 is therefore unbiased: $0.3+0.7=1$ gives $E=\lambda$ (D true). But $\bar X+S^2$ has weights summing to 2, so $E=2\lambda\ne\lambda$ (C false). Hence A, B, D only.

Q99. Let $X\sim N_3(0,\Sigma)$ where $\Sigma=\begin{pmatrix}4&1&1\\1&2&\alpha\\1&\alpha&2\end{pmatrix}$. The value of $\alpha$ for which $r_{23.1}=\dfrac57$ should be:
  1. 1
  2. $\dfrac32$
  3. $\dfrac23$
  4. $\dfrac12$
Show Answer

Answer: (B) $\dfrac32$. Convert covariances to correlations: $r_{12}=r_{13}=\dfrac{1}{\sqrt{4\cdot2}}=\dfrac{1}{2\sqrt2}$ (so $r_{12}^2=\tfrac18$) and $r_{23}=\dfrac{\alpha}{2}$. Then $r_{23.1}=\dfrac{r_{23}-r_{12}r_{13}}{\sqrt{(1-r_{12}^2)(1-r_{13}^2)}}=\dfrac{\alpha/2-1/8}{7/8}=\dfrac{4\alpha-1}{7}$. Setting this equal to $\tfrac57$ gives $4\alpha-1=5$, i.e. $\alpha=\tfrac32$.

Q100. For the model $y_t=\alpha+\beta x_t+u_t$ with $u_t=\rho u_{t-1}+\epsilon_t$, $\epsilon_t\sim N(0,\sigma^2)$. If $e_t$ are the residuals with $\sum_{t=1}^n e_t^2\simeq5.28$ and $\sum_{t=1}^n e_t e_{t-1}\simeq1.32$ for sufficiently large $n$, then the estimated value of $\rho$ and the Durbin–Watson statistic are, respectively:
  1. 0.75, 1.50
  2. 0.25, 1.50
  3. 0.25, 0.75
  4. 0.25, 0.50
Show Answer

Answer: (B) 0.25, 1.50. $\hat\rho=\dfrac{\sum e_t e_{t-1}}{\sum e_t^2}=\dfrac{1.32}{5.28}=0.25$. The Durbin–Watson statistic $d\approx2(1-\hat\rho)=2(1-0.25)=1.50$.

Q101. For the multiple linear regression model $y=X\beta+\epsilon$ ($y:n\times1,\ X:n\times k,\ \beta:k\times1$), the coefficient of determination is $R^2$. The F-test statistic for testing the significance of the complete regression (except the intercept) is:
  1. $\dfrac{k-1}{n-k}\,R^2$
  2. $\dfrac{R^2/(k-1)}{(1-R^2)/(n-k)}$
  3. $\dfrac{R^2/(n-k)}{(1-R^2)/(k-1)}$
  4. $\dfrac{n-k}{k-1}\cdot\dfrac{1-R^2}{R^2}$
Show Answer

Answer: (B) $\dfrac{R^2/(k-1)}{(1-R^2)/(n-k)}$. With $k$ parameters (including the intercept) there are $k-1$ regressors. The overall F-test compares explained to unexplained variation: $F=\dfrac{R^2/(k-1)}{(1-R^2)/(n-k)}$, with $(k-1,\,n-k)$ degrees of freedom.

Q102. Let $X_1,X_2,\dots,X_n$ be iid exponential random variables with mean $\theta$. Let $T_S=\sum_{i=1}^n X_i$. Consider the single-observation statistic $T(x_1)=\begin{cases}1,&X_1>X_0\\0,&\text{otherwise}\end{cases}$. Then $E[T(X_1)\mid T_S]$ is the UMVUE of:
  1. $\theta$
  2. $\dfrac1\theta$
  3. $e^{-x_0/\theta}$
  4. $1-e^{-x_0/\theta}$
Show Answer

Answer: (C) $e^{-x_0/\theta}$. $T(X_1)$ is unbiased for $E[T(X_1)]=P(X_1>X_0)=e^{-X_0/\theta}$ (the exponential survival probability). Since $T_S=\sum X_i$ is a complete sufficient statistic, by the Rao–Blackwell/Lehmann–Scheffé theorems $E[T(X_1)\mid T_S]$ is the UMVUE of $e^{-x_0/\theta}$.

Q103. Let $f(x_1,\dots,x_n,\theta)$ be the likelihood of a sample of size $n$. For testing $H_0:\theta\in\Theta_0$ against $H_1:\theta\in\Theta_1$, where $\Theta=\Theta_0\cup\Theta_1$ is the parameter space, the likelihood ratio statistic $\lambda$ is used. Then:
A. $\lambda=\dfrac{\sup_{\theta\in\Theta_0} f(x_1,\dots,x_n,\theta)}{\sup_{\theta\in\Theta} f(x_1,\dots,x_n,\theta)}$
B. $0<\lambda<\infty$
C. $-2\log_e\lambda\sim N(0,1)$ asymptotically
D. The likelihood ratio test is a function of a sufficient statistic for $\theta$.
Choose the correct answer:
  1. A, B only
  2. B, C only
  3. A, D only
  4. A, C only
Show Answer

Answer: (C) A, D only. A gives the correct definition of $\lambda$ (A true). Since the numerator is a supremum over a subset of the denominator\'s set, $0\le\lambda\le1$ — not $0<\lambda<\infty$, so B is false. By Wilks\' theorem $-2\log_e\lambda$ is asymptotically $\chi^2$ (not $N(0,1)$), so C is false. Because $\lambda$ depends on the data only through the likelihood, it is a function of the sufficient statistic (D true). Hence A, D only.

Q104. Let $X_1,X_2,\dots,X_n$ be $n$ iid random variables with mean 1 and variance 4. Then which of the following statements is incorrect?
  1. $\dfrac1n\sum_{i=1}^n x_i\xrightarrow{P}1$
  2. $\dfrac1n\sum_{i=1}^n x_i^2\xrightarrow{P}4$
  3. $\dfrac{\sqrt n}{2}(\bar X_n-1)\xrightarrow{d}N(0,1)$
  4. $E\!\left(\dfrac{1}{n-1}\sum_{i=1}^n (X_i-\bar X_n)^2\right)=4$
Show Answer

Answer: (B) $\dfrac1n\sum_{i=1}^n x_i^2\xrightarrow{P}4$. Here $E(X)=1,\ \mathrm{Var}(X)=4$, so $E(X^2)=4+1^2=5$. Option 2 is incorrect: by the WLLN $\tfrac1n\sum x_i^2\xrightarrow{P}E(X^2)=5$, not 4. The others are correct: $\tfrac1n\sum x_i\xrightarrow{P}1$ (WLLN), $\tfrac{\sqrt n}{2}(\bar X_n-1)\xrightarrow{d}N(0,1)$ (CLT with $\sigma=2$), and $E(S^2)=4$ (unbiasedness of the sample variance).

Q105. In samples of size 5 from a $U[0,1]$ population, the mean of the distribution of the median is:
  1. $\dfrac12$
  2. $\dfrac13$
  3. $\dfrac14$
  4. 1
Show Answer

Answer: (A) $\dfrac12$. For a sample of size $n=5$ from $U[0,1]$, the median is the 3rd order statistic. In general $E(X_{(k)})=\dfrac{k}{n+1}$, so $E(X_{(3)})=\dfrac{3}{6}=\dfrac12$.

Q106. The arrival of customers in a bank follows a Poisson process with rate 2 customers per minute. The probability that the time interval between two successive arrivals is more than 6 minutes, given that it is more than 4 minutes, is:
  1. $e^{-1}$
  2. $e^{-4}$
  3. $e^{-6}$
  4. $1-e^{-1}$
Show Answer

Answer: (B) $e^{-4}$. Interarrival times are exponential with rate $\lambda=2$. By the memoryless property, $P(T>6\mid T>4)=P(T>2)=e^{-\lambda\cdot2}=e^{-4}$.

Q107. Consider the multiple linear regression model $y=X\beta+u$ with $y:50\times1,\ X:50\times5,\ \beta:5\times1,\ u:50\times1$. If the coefficient of determination $R^2=0.55$, then the adjusted $R^2$ is:
  1. 0.49
  2. 0.51
  3. 0.45
  4. 0.53
Show Answer

Answer: (B) 0.51. With $n=50$ observations and $k=5$ parameters, $\bar R^2=1-(1-R^2)\dfrac{n-1}{n-k}=1-(0.45)\dfrac{49}{45}=1-0.49=0.51$.

Q108. Consider a three-state Markov chain with transition probability matrix $P=\begin{pmatrix}0&1&0\\0.5&0&0.5\\0&1&0\end{pmatrix}$, so that $P^2=\begin{pmatrix}0.5&0&0.5\\0&1&0\\0.5&0&0.5\end{pmatrix}$ and $P^3=P$. Then the Markov chain is:
  1. Irreducible and aperiodic
  2. Irreducible and periodic
  3. Reducible and aperiodic
  4. Reducible and periodic
Show Answer

Answer: (B) Irreducible and periodic. All three states communicate ($1\to2\to3$ and back), so the chain is irreducible. Returns to any state occur only in an even number of steps ($P^3=P$ means odd powers equal $P$ and even powers equal $P^2$), so the period is 2 — the chain is periodic.

Q109. Let $X$ be an $n\times k$ matrix of rank $k\ (\le n)$ and $P=I_n-X(X\'X)^{-1}X\'$. Then:
  1. All eigenvalues of $P$ are 1.
  2. $k$ eigenvalues of $P$ are 1 and $n-k$ eigenvalues are 0.
  3. $n-k$ eigenvalues of $P$ are 1 and $k$ eigenvalues are 0.
  4. All eigenvalues of $P$ are different from 1 and 0.
Show Answer

Answer: (C) $n-k$ eigenvalues of $P$ are 1 and $k$ eigenvalues are 0.. $P=I_n-H$ where $H=X(X\'X)^{-1}X\'$ is the hat matrix — a symmetric idempotent projection of rank $k$. Thus $P$ is also symmetric and idempotent (a projection onto the orthogonal complement) with rank $n-k$. An idempotent matrix has eigenvalues 0 and 1 only; $P$ has eigenvalue 1 with multiplicity $n-k$ and 0 with multiplicity $k$.

Q110. Two groups of 15 executives were taught a foreign language, one by the Educational Service (ES) method and the other by the Learning Curve (LC) method. Final scores:
ES: 65, 57, 74, 43, 39, 88, 62, 69, 70, 72, 59, 60, 80, 83, 50
LC: 85, 87, 92, 98, 90, 88, 75, 72, 60, 93, 88, 89, 96, 73, 62
To compare the two methods, the Mann–Whitney U-test was applied. The value of the Mann–Whitney U-statistic will be:
  1. 32.5
  2. 192.5
  3. 112.5
  4. 312.5
Show Answer

Answer: (A) 32.5. Ranking all 30 scores together (averaging ties) gives the ES rank-sum $R_{ES}=152.5$. Then $U_{ES}=R_{ES}-\dfrac{n_1(n_1+1)}{2}=152.5-\dfrac{15\cdot16}{2}=152.5-120=32.5$, and $U_{LC}=n_1n_2-U_{ES}=225-32.5=192.5$. The Mann–Whitney statistic is the smaller value, $U=32.5$ (reflecting that ES scores are generally lower).

Q111. Study the following statements regarding the Horvitz–Thompson estimator:
A. The Horvitz–Thompson estimate is an ordered estimate.
B. The unbiased estimate of the variance of the Horvitz–Thompson estimator $(\hat Z_n)$ does not reduce to zero when all the $Z_i$\'s are equal.
C. The unbiased estimate of the variance of the Horvitz–Thompson estimator $(\hat Z_n)$ may assume negative values for some samples.
D. The Horvitz–Thompson estimator $(\hat Z_n)$ is a biased estimator.
Choose the correct answer:
  1. A and B only
  2. A and D only
  3. B and C only
  4. A, B and C only
Show Answer

Answer: (C) B and C only. The Horvitz–Thompson estimator is unbiased (so D is false) and is an unordered estimator — the ordered estimator is Des Raj\'s (so A is false). Its standard (Horvitz–Thompson form) variance estimator has two well-known drawbacks: it can take negative values for some samples (C true) and, unlike the Yates–Grundy–Sen form, it does not reduce to zero even when all $y_i/\pi_i$ are equal (B true). Hence B and C only.

Q112. The National Statistical Commission (NSC) was established on the basis of the recommendations of which of the following commission/committee?
  1. Kelkar committee
  2. Mahalanobis committee
  3. Rangarajan commission
  4. Kothari commission
Show Answer

Answer: (C) Rangarajan commission. The National Statistical Commission was set up (constituted in 2005) based on the recommendations of the Rangarajan Commission on Statistics, chaired by Dr. C. Rangarajan.

Q113. Consider the function $f(x)=x^3-6x^2+9x-8$ and the statements:
A. $x=1$ is a point of local minimum.
B. $x=1$ is a point of local maximum.
C. $x=3$ is a point of local minimum.
D. $x=3$ is a point of local maximum.
Choose the correct answer:
  1. A, D only
  2. B, C only
  3. A, C only
  4. B, D only
Show Answer

Answer: (B) B, C only. $f\'(x)=3x^2-12x+9=3(x-1)(x-3)$ vanishes at $x=1,3$. With $f\'\'(x)=6x-12$: $f\'\'(1)=-6<0$, so $x=1$ is a local maximum (B); $f\'\'(3)=6>0$, so $x=3$ is a local minimum (C). Hence B, C only.

Q114. Let $X$ have $E(X)=0$ and $V(X)=\Sigma=\begin{pmatrix}1&0&0.5&0\\0&1&0.3&0.4\\0.5&0.3&1&0\\0&0.4&0&1\end{pmatrix}$. Write $X=(x_1,x_2,x_3,x_4)\'=(x^{(1)},x^{(2)})$ where $x^{(1)}=(x_1,x_2)$ and $x^{(2)}=(x_3,x_4)$ are $2\times1$ vectors. Then the maximum canonical correlation between $x^{(1)}$ and $x^{(2)}$ should be:
  1. 0.72
  2. 0.63
  3. 0.50
  4. 0.40
Show Answer

Answer: (B) 0.63. With $\Sigma_{11}=\Sigma_{22}=I_2$, $\Sigma_{12}=\begin{pmatrix}0.5&0\\0.3&0.4\end{pmatrix}$, the squared canonical correlations are the eigenvalues of $\Sigma_{12}\Sigma_{21}=\begin{pmatrix}0.25&0.15\\0.15&0.25\end{pmatrix}$, namely $0.25\pm0.15=0.4$ and $0.1$. The maximum canonical correlation is $\sqrt{0.4}\approx0.63$.

Q115. Arrange the following statistical organizations in order of their year of establishment, from oldest to latest.
A. Central Statistics Office (CSO)
B. National Sample Survey Office (NSSO)
C. National Statistical Office (NSO)
D. Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MOSPI)
E. National Statistical Commission (NSC)
Choose the correct answer:
  1. A, B, C, E, D
  2. A, B, D, C, E
  3. B, A, C, D, E
  4. B, A, D, E, C
Show Answer

Answer: (D) B, A, D, E, C. The National Sample Survey began in 1950 (B), the Central Statistics Office in 1951 (A), MOSPI was formed in 1999 (D), the National Statistical Commission was constituted in 2005 (E), and the National Statistical Office (merging CSO and NSSO) in 2019 (C). Hence B, A, D, E, C.

Q116. Which of the following designs use all three principles of design of experiments (randomization, replication and local control)?
A. Completely Randomized Design (CRD)
B. Randomized Block Design (RBD)
C. Latin Square Design (LSD)
D. Balanced Incomplete Block Design (BIBD)
Choose the correct answer:
  1. A and B only
  2. A and D only
  3. B and C only
  4. A, B and C only
Show Answer

Answer: (C) B and C only. CRD uses only randomization and replication — it has no local control. The Randomized Block Design (blocking in one direction) and the Latin Square Design (blocking by rows and columns) both employ all three principles — randomization, replication and local control. Hence B and C only.

Q117. Consider two models:
(I) $y_i=\alpha+\beta x_i+u_i$
(II) $y_i=\alpha+\beta x_i+\gamma x_i^2+v_i$
Define $A=\sum(y_i-a-bx_i)^2$ and $B=\sum(y_i-\hat\alpha-\hat\beta x_i-\hat\gamma x_i^2)^2$, where $a,b$ are the OLS estimates from model (I) and $\hat\alpha,\hat\beta,\hat\gamma$ from model (II). Then which of the following is always correct?
  1. $A\ge B$
  2. $A\le B$
  3. It can happen that $A=0$ but $B\le0$
  4. It can happen that $B=0$ but $A\ge0$
Show Answer

Answer: (A) $A\ge B$. Model (I) is nested within model (II) (set $\gamma=0$). Least squares chooses coefficients to minimize the residual sum of squares, and adding a regressor can never increase the minimized RSS. Hence $B\le A$, i.e. $A\ge B$ always. (A residual sum of squares can never be negative, so options with $B\le0$ are impossible.)

Q118. The National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) in India primarily follows which sampling design for its large-scale socio-economic surveys?
  1. Simple random sampling
  2. Systematic sampling
  3. Double sampling
  4. Stratified multi-stage sampling
Show Answer

Answer: (D) Stratified multi-stage sampling. NSSO large-scale surveys use a stratified multi-stage sampling design — e.g. villages/urban blocks as first-stage units (after stratification) and households as second-stage units — which balances cost and precision over a vast, heterogeneous population.

Q119. For estimating the AR(2) process $y_t=\Phi_1 y_{t-1}+\Phi_2 y_{t-2}+\epsilon_t$, the Yule–Walker equations are used. If the sample autocorrelations are $r_1=0.8,\ r_2=0.5$, then the estimate of $\Phi_2$ is:
  1. $\dfrac{-7}{18}$
  2. $\dfrac{16}{18}$
  3. $\dfrac{7}{18}$
  4. $\dfrac{-16}{18}$
Show Answer

Answer: (A) $\dfrac{-7}{18}$. The Yule–Walker equations $r_1=\Phi_1+\Phi_2 r_1$ and $r_2=\Phi_1 r_1+\Phi_2$ give $\Phi_2=\dfrac{r_2-r_1^2}{1-r_1^2}=\dfrac{0.5-0.64}{1-0.64}=\dfrac{-0.14}{0.36}=-\dfrac{7}{18}$.

Q120. Match LIST-I (properties) with LIST-II (distribution).
LIST-ILIST-II
A. Probability of the number of successes in a finite number of trialsI. Negative Binomial
B. Probability of the first successII. Poisson
C. Probability of the number of failures preceding the $r$th successIII. Binomial
D. Probability of success is infinitesimally small and the number of trials is very largeIV. Geometric
Choose the correct answer:
  1. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  2. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  3. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  4. A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
Show Answer

Answer: (A) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II. Number of successes in a fixed number of trials → Binomial (A–III). Trials until the first success → Geometric (B–IV). Number of failures before the $r$th success → Negative Binomial (C–I). The limiting case of many trials with a tiny success probability → Poisson (D–II). Hence A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II.

Q121. For estimating the spectral density function of a time series, one can use:
  1. Partial autocorrelation function
  2. Autocorrelation function
  3. Yule–Walker equations
  4. Periodogram
Show Answer

Answer: (D) Periodogram. The periodogram — based on the squared magnitude of the finite Fourier transform of the series — is the classical estimator of the spectral density function (its smoothed versions give consistent spectral estimates).

Q122. A gambler plays in a casino with an initial capital of Rs. 100. If the gambler wins, he receives Rs. 1, and if he loses, he pays Rs. 1. The probability that the gambler wins is $\tfrac34$. The probability of ultimate ruin of the gambler is:
  1. $1-(3/4)^{100}$
  2. $(1/4)^{100}$
  3. 1
  4. $(1/3)^{100}$
Show Answer

Answer: (D) $(1/3)^{100}$. Against an effectively infinitely rich casino, the classical gambler\'s-ruin probability with win probability $p>q$ is $\left(\dfrac{q}{p}\right)^{i}$ for initial capital $i$. Here $p=\tfrac34,\ q=\tfrac14$, so $q/p=\tfrac13$ and the ruin probability is $(1/3)^{100}$.

Q123. Let $f(x)=\tfrac12 e^{-|x|},\ -\infty<x<\infty$. Then $E(|X|)$ and $\mathrm{Var}(|X|)$ are given, respectively, by:
  1. 1, 1
  2. $\tfrac12,\ 1$
  3. 2, 2
  4. $1,\ \tfrac12$
Show Answer

Answer: (A) 1, 1. For the Laplace density, $|X|$ has density $f_{|X|}(y)=2\cdot\tfrac12 e^{-y}=e^{-y},\ y>0$, i.e. $|X|\sim\text{Exponential(rate 1)}$. Hence $E(|X|)=1$ and $\mathrm{Var}(|X|)=1$.

Q124. 4 coins are tossed 160 times and the following results were obtained:
No. of heads01234
Observed freq.175254316
Assuming the coins are unbiased, the expected frequencies are computed and the goodness of fit tested. The calculated value of $\chi^2$ is:
  1. 8.275
  2. 10.275
  3. 12.725
  4. 15.725
Show Answer

Answer: (C) 12.725. Under Binomial$(4,\tfrac12)$ with $N=160$, the expected frequencies are $10,40,60,40,10$. Then $\chi^2=\dfrac{(17-10)^2}{10}+\dfrac{(52-40)^2}{40}+\dfrac{(54-60)^2}{60}+\dfrac{(31-40)^2}{40}+\dfrac{(6-10)^2}{10}=4.9+3.6+0.6+2.025+1.6=12.725$.

Q125. In the multiple regression model $y=X\beta+u$, suppose $E(X\'u)=\delta$, and $b$ is the OLS estimator of $\beta$. Then $E(b-\beta)$ is:
  1. 0
  2. $\delta$
  3. $(X\'X)\delta$
  4. $(X\'X)^{-1}\delta$
Show Answer

Answer: (D) $(X\'X)^{-1}\delta$. $b=(X\'X)^{-1}X\'y=\beta+(X\'X)^{-1}X\'u$, so $b-\beta=(X\'X)^{-1}X\'u$ and $E(b-\beta)=(X\'X)^{-1}E(X\'u)=(X\'X)^{-1}\delta$. (When $\delta=0$ this reduces to the usual unbiasedness; here $\delta\ne0$ gives the endogeneity bias.)

Q126. For the AR(1) process $y_t=0.6\,y_{t-1}+\epsilon_t$, with $E(\epsilon_t)=0,\ E(\epsilon_t^2)=4$, the variance of $y_t$ is:
  1. $\dfrac{20}{3}$
  2. 10
  3. 6.25
  4. $\dfrac{100}{9}$
Show Answer

Answer: (C) 6.25. For a stationary AR(1), $\mathrm{Var}(y_t)=\dfrac{\sigma^2_\epsilon}{1-\phi^2}=\dfrac{4}{1-0.6^2}=\dfrac{4}{0.64}=6.25$.

Q127. In a randomized block design with four treatments and six blocks, if the sum of squares due to treatments is 177, the sum of squares due to blocks is 195, and the total sum of squares is 477, then the mean sum of squares due to error will be:
  1. 7
  2. 23
  3. 39
  4. 59
Show Answer

Answer: (A) 7. $SS_{error}=SS_{total}-SS_{treat}-SS_{blocks}=477-177-195=105$. The error degrees of freedom are $(t-1)(b-1)=(4-1)(6-1)=15$. Hence $MSE=105/15=7$.

Q128. Consider the two-equation model
(i) $y_1=r_1 y_2+\beta_{11}x_1+\beta_{12}x_2+\epsilon_1$
(ii) $y_2=r_2 y_1+\beta_{22}x_2+\epsilon_2$
where the $y$\'s are endogenous and the $x$\'s are exogenous variables. Then:
  1. Both (i) and (ii) are identified
  2. (i) is identified but (ii) is not
  3. (ii) is identified but (i) is not
  4. Both (i) and (ii) are unidentified
Show Answer

Answer: (C) (ii) is identified but (i) is not. The system has 2 predetermined variables ($x_1,x_2$). Order condition: (excluded predetermined) $\ge$ (included endogenous $-1$). Equation (i) excludes no exogenous variable ($0\ge1$ fails) → not identified. Equation (ii) excludes $x_1$ ($1\ge1$ holds) → identified (just-identified). Hence (ii) is identified but (i) is not.

Q129. If a stratified random sample of size 50 is to be selected by Neyman allocation from a population with $N_1=150,\ N_2=350,\ S_1^2=S_2^2=4$, then the number of units to be selected from the second stratum is:
  1. 25
  2. 30
  3. 35
  4. 40
Show Answer

Answer: (C) 35. Neyman allocation: $n_h=n\dfrac{N_h S_h}{\sum N_k S_k}$. Since $S_1=S_2$, this reduces to proportional allocation: $n_2=50\times\dfrac{350}{150+350}=50\times0.7=35$.

Q130. Let $X_1,X_2,\dots,X_n$ be a random sample from an $N(\mu,\sigma^2)$ population. Then the $(1-\alpha)$ upper confidence bound for $\mu$ is given by:
  1. $\left(-\infty,\ \bar X+t_{n-1,\alpha}\,S/\sqrt n\right)$
  2. $\left(-\infty,\ \bar X-t_{n-1,\alpha}\,S/\sqrt n\right)$
  3. $\left(-\infty,\ \bar X+t_{n,\alpha}\,S/\sqrt n\right)$
  4. $\left(-\infty,\ \bar X-t_{n,\alpha}\,S/\sqrt n\right)$
Show Answer

Answer: (A) $\left(-\infty,\ \bar X+t_{n-1,\alpha}\,S/\sqrt n\right)$. With $\sigma$ unknown, $\dfrac{\bar X-\mu}{S/\sqrt n}\sim t_{n-1}$. A one-sided $(1-\alpha)$ upper bound satisfies $P\!\left(\mu\le\bar X+t_{n-1,\alpha}\,S/\sqrt n\right)=1-\alpha$, giving the interval $\left(-\infty,\ \bar X+t_{n-1,\alpha}\,S/\sqrt n\right)$ (note the $n-1$ degrees of freedom and the $+$ sign for an upper bound).

Q131. Match LIST-I with LIST-II.
LIST-I (R command)LIST-II (output)
A. > min(c(1,6,-14,-154,0))I. [1] -154 6
B. > max(c(1,6,-14,-154,0))II. [1] 6
C. > range(c(1,6,-14,-154,0))III. [1] -154
D. > which(c(1,6,-14,-154,0) < 0)IV. [1] 3 4
Choose the correct answer:
  1. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  2. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
  3. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  4. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
Show Answer

Answer: (B) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV. min returns $-154$ (A–III); max returns 6 (B–II); range returns the pair $(-154,\ 6)$ (C–I); which(...<0) returns the positions of the negative entries $-14$ and $-154$, namely 3 and 4 (D–IV). Hence A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV.

Q132. Let $u$ and $v$ be two $n\times1$ vectors with $u\'v\ne0$. Let $P=I_n-\dfrac{1}{u\'v}\,uv\'$ and $Q=uv\'$. Then $PQ$ is equal to:
  1. 0
  2. $uv\'$
  3. $1-u\'v$
  4. Product of $P$ and $Q$ is not possible
Show Answer

Answer: (A) 0. $PQ=\left(I_n-\dfrac{uv\'}{u\'v}\right)uv\'=uv\'-\dfrac{u(v\'u)v\'}{u\'v}$. Since the scalar $v\'u=u\'v$, the second term is $uv\'$, so $PQ=uv\'-uv\'=0$. ($P$ is the oblique projector annihilating the column space of $Q$.)

Q133. Let $X$ and $Y$ be independent random variables each following an exponential distribution with parameter $\lambda$. Then the conditional distribution of $X$ given $X+Y=2$ should be:
  1. Exponential$(2)$
  2. $\beta_1\!\left(\tfrac\lambda2,\tfrac\lambda2\right)$
  3. Uniform$(0,2)$
  4. Gamma$(2,\lambda)$
Show Answer

Answer: (C) Uniform$(0,2)$. For two iid exponential variables, the conditional density of $X$ given $X+Y=s$ is $\dfrac{f_X(x)f_Y(s-x)}{f_{X+Y}(s)}=\dfrac{\lambda^2 e^{-\lambda s}}{\lambda^2 s\,e^{-\lambda s}}=\dfrac1s$ for $0<x<s$ — i.e. Uniform$(0,s)$. With $s=2$, $X\mid(X+Y=2)\sim\text{Uniform}(0,2)$.

Q134. A $2^3$ factorial experiment with factors A, B and C is replicated twice. The error degrees of freedom will be:
  1. 8
  2. 7
  3. 15
  4. 16
Show Answer

Answer: (B) 7. Total observations $=2^3\times2=16$, so total df $=15$. The 7 factorial effects (A, B, C, AB, AC, BC, ABC) take 7 df, and the two replications, laid out as blocks as a replicated factorial normally is, take $r-1=1$. Hence error df $=15-7-1=(r-1)(2^3-1)=7$. (Only if the replications were not treated as blocks, a completely randomized layout, would the error df be $2^3(r-1)=8$.)

Q135. If $N$ is the incidence matrix of a BIBD $(v,r,b,k,\lambda)$, then the value of $|NN\'|$ is:
  1. $rk(\lambda-r)^{v-1}$
  2. $rk(r-\lambda)^{v-1}$
  3. $rk(r-\lambda)^{v+1}$
  4. $rk(\lambda-r)^{v+1}$
Show Answer

Answer: (B) $rk(r-\lambda)^{v-1}$. For a BIBD, $NN\'=(r-\lambda)I_v+\lambda J_v$. Its determinant is $(r-\lambda)^{v-1}\big[r+(v-1)\lambda\big]$. Using $\lambda(v-1)=r(k-1)$, we get $r+(v-1)\lambda=rk$, so $|NN\'|=rk\,(r-\lambda)^{v-1}$.

Q136. For the exponential distribution $f(x)=e^{-x},\ x\ge0$, the cumulative distribution function of $X_{(7)}$ (the maximum) in a random sample of size 7 is:
  1. $(e^{-x})^7$
  2. $(1+e^{-x})^7$
  3. $(1-e^{-x})^7$
  4. $(-e^{-x})^7$
Show Answer

Answer: (C) $(1-e^{-x})^7$. The CDF of a single observation is $F(x)=1-e^{-x}$. The maximum $X_{(n)}\le x$ iff all $n$ observations are $\le x$, so $F_{X_{(7)}}(x)=[F(x)]^7=(1-e^{-x})^7$.

Q137. In the multiple linear regression model $y=X\beta+u$ with $E(u)=0,\ E(uu\')=\sigma^2 I_n$, let $C=X(X\'X)^{-1}X\'$. Then $E\big[(Cy)\{(I_n-C)y\}\'\big]$ is:
  1. $\sigma^2 C$
  2. 0
  3. $\sigma^2 CC\'$
  4. $\sigma^2(n-k)CC\'$
Show Answer

Answer: (B) 0. $Cy=X\beta+Cu$ (fitted values) and $(I_n-C)y=(I_n-C)u$ (residuals). Then $E[(Cy)\{(I_n-C)y\}\']=X\beta\,E(u\')(I_n-C)+C\,E(uu\')(I_n-C)=0+\sigma^2 C(I_n-C)=\sigma^2(C-C^2)=0$, since $C$ is idempotent. Fitted values and residuals are uncorrelated.

Q138. Given the pdf $f(x,\theta)=\begin{cases}\tfrac1\theta,&0\le x\le\theta\\0,&\text{otherwise}\end{cases}$ For testing $H_0:\theta=1$ against $H_1:\theta=2$, based on a single observed value of $x$, let the critical region be $w=\{x:x\ge0.5\}$. Then the power of the test is:
  1. 0.25
  2. 0.75
  3. 0.5
  4. 0.05
Show Answer

Answer: (B) 0.75. Power $=P(X\ge0.5\mid\theta=2)$. Under $H_1$, $X\sim U[0,2]$ with density $\tfrac12$, so $P(X\ge0.5)=\int_{0.5}^{2}\tfrac12\,dx=\tfrac12(1.5)=0.75$.

Q139. In a sequential probability ratio test (SPRT):
A. We prefix the type I error and minimize the type II error.
B. We prefix both types of error.
C. The sample size becomes a random variable.
D. The SPRT terminates surely.
Choose the correct answer:
  1. A, C only
  2. B, C, D only
  3. A, C, D only
  4. B, C only
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Answer: (B) B, C, D only. In the SPRT both error probabilities $\alpha$ and $\beta$ are fixed in advance (B true, so A is false), and sampling continues until a boundary is crossed, making the sample size $N$ a random variable (C true). Wald proved the SPRT terminates with probability 1 (D true). Hence B, C, D only.

Q140. The maximum likelihood estimates of $\mu$ and $\Sigma$ based on the observations $X_1=\begin{pmatrix}1\\2\end{pmatrix},\ X_2=\begin{pmatrix}4\\4\end{pmatrix},\ X_3=\begin{pmatrix}4\\3\end{pmatrix}$ from $N_2(\mu,\Sigma)$ are, respectively:
  1. $\begin{pmatrix}3\\3\end{pmatrix},\ \begin{pmatrix}2/3&1\\1&2\end{pmatrix}$
  2. $\begin{pmatrix}3\\3\end{pmatrix},\ \begin{pmatrix}2&3\\3&6\end{pmatrix}$
  3. $\begin{pmatrix}3\\3\end{pmatrix},\ \begin{pmatrix}6&3\\3&2\end{pmatrix}$
  4. $\begin{pmatrix}3\\3\end{pmatrix},\ \begin{pmatrix}2&1\\1&2/3\end{pmatrix}$
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Answer: (D) $\begin{pmatrix}3\\3\end{pmatrix},\ \begin{pmatrix}2&1\\1&2/3\end{pmatrix}$. $\hat\mu=\bar X=(3,3)\'$. The MLE of $\Sigma$ uses divisor $n$: with deviations $(-2,-1),(1,1),(1,0)$, $\sum(X_i-\bar X)(X_i-\bar X)\'=\begin{pmatrix}6&3\\3&2\end{pmatrix}$, so $\hat\Sigma=\tfrac13\begin{pmatrix}6&3\\3&2\end{pmatrix}=\begin{pmatrix}2&1\\1&2/3\end{pmatrix}$.

ComprehensionConsider a three-state Markov chain with transition probability matrix $P=\begin{pmatrix}q&p&0\\q&0&p\\0&q&p\end{pmatrix}$, where $0<p<1$ and $q+p=1$. (Questions 141–143 refer to this chain.)
Q141. The three-step transition probability $p_{12}^{(3)}$ is:
  1. $p^3$
  2. $pq(1+p)$
  3. $pq(1+q)$
  4. $pq^2$
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Answer: (B) $pq(1+p)$. Computing $P^2$ gives first row $(q^2+pq,\ pq,\ p^2)$. Then $p_{12}^{(3)}=(P^2)_{11}P_{12}+(P^2)_{12}P_{22}+(P^2)_{13}P_{32}=(q^2+pq)p+pq\cdot0+p^2\cdot q=pq^2+2p^2q=pq(q+2p)$. Since $q+2p=(q+p)+p=1+p$, this equals $pq(1+p)$.

Q142. The first-return probability to state 1 in three steps, $f_{11}^{(3)}$, is:
  1. $p^2 q$
  2. $pq^2$
  3. $0$
  4. $pq$
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Answer: (C) $0$. A first return to state 1 at step 3 must avoid state 1 at steps 1 and 2: the only feasible path is $1\to2\to3\to1$ (from 1 only $1\to2$ has positive probability among non-1 moves, then $2\to3$). But $P_{31}=0$, so the last step $3\to1$ is impossible. Hence $f_{11}^{(3)}=p\cdot p\cdot0=0$.

Q143. The expected number of steps required for a transition from state 1 to state 2, $\mu_{12}$, is:
  1. $\infty$
  2. $q^{-1}$
  3. $p$
  4. $p^{-1}$
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Answer: (D) $p^{-1}$. The mean first-passage time satisfies $\mu_{12}=1+\sum_{k\ne2}P_{1k}\mu_{k2}=1+P_{11}\mu_{12}+P_{13}\mu_{32}=1+q\,\mu_{12}$ (since $P_{13}=0$). Hence $\mu_{12}(1-q)=1$, giving $\mu_{12}=\dfrac{1}{1-q}=\dfrac1p=p^{-1}$.

Q144. The stationary probability distribution of the Markov chain is:
  1. $\left(\dfrac{q^2}{1-pq},\ \dfrac{pq}{1-pq},\ \dfrac{p^2}{1-pq}\right)$
  2. $\left(\tfrac12,\ 0,\ \tfrac12\right)$
  3. $\left(\tfrac14,\ \tfrac12,\ \tfrac14\right)$
  4. $\left(\tfrac13,\ \tfrac13,\ \tfrac13\right)$
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Answer: (A) $\left(\dfrac{q^2}{1-pq},\ \dfrac{pq}{1-pq},\ \dfrac{p^2}{1-pq}\right)$. Solving $\pi P=\pi$ gives $\pi_2=\tfrac pq\pi_1$ and $\pi_3=\tfrac{p^2}{q^2}\pi_1$, so $\pi\propto(q^2,\,pq,\,p^2)$. Direct check confirms $(q^2,pq,p^2)P=(q^2,pq,p^2)$ using $p+q=1$. Normalizing by $q^2+pq+p^2=(p+q)^2-pq=1-pq$ gives $\pi=\left(\dfrac{q^2}{1-pq},\dfrac{pq}{1-pq},\dfrac{p^2}{1-pq}\right)$. (Only when $p=q=\tfrac12$ does this reduce to $(\tfrac13,\tfrac13,\tfrac13)$.)

Q145. The first-passage probability $f_{12}^{(5)}$ is equal to:
  1. $q^4 p$
  2. $p^4 q$
  3. $q^3 p^2$
  4. $q(p^2+q^2)$
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Answer: (A) $q^4 p$. A first passage from 1 to 2 in 5 steps must avoid state 2 for the first 4 steps. Among the non-2 states, from state 1 only the self-loop $1\to1$ has positive probability ($P_{13}=0$), and state 3 is unreachable from 1 without passing through 2. So the walk stays at state 1 for four steps ($q$ each) and then moves $1\to2$ (probability $p$): $f_{12}^{(5)}=q^4 p$.

ComprehensionConsider the model for the time series $\{y_t\}$: $y_t=\Phi_1 y_{t-1}+\Phi_2 y_{t-2}+\epsilon_t-\theta_1\epsilon_{t-1}-\theta_2\epsilon_{t-2}$, where $\{\epsilon_t\}$ is a purely random process with $\mathrm{Var}(\epsilon_t)=1$ for all $t$, and $\{\Phi_1,\Phi_2,\theta_1,\theta_2\}$ are parameters. (Questions 146–148 refer to this model.)
Q146. Let $\Phi_1=0.6,\ \Phi_2=0.4,\ \theta_1=0.5,\ \theta_2=0$. Then the process is a:
  1. ARMA(2, 1) process
  2. ARMA(1, 2) process
  3. ARIMA(2, 1, 0) process
  4. ARIMA(1, 1, 1) process
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Answer: (D) ARIMA(1, 1, 1) process. The AR polynomial $1-0.6B-0.4B^2=(1-B)(1+0.4B)$ has a unit root, so the process is non-stationary and needs one difference ($d=1$). After differencing, the stationary AR part is order 1 and the MA part is order 1 (only $\theta_1\ne0$). Hence it is an ARIMA(1, 1, 1) process.

Q147. If $\Phi_1=0.6,\ \Phi_2=0.3,\ \theta_1=\theta_2=0$ and $\alpha(h)$ is the partial autocorrelation coefficient of the process at lag $h$, then:
  1. $\alpha(h)=0$ for all $h\ge1$
  2. $\alpha(h)=0$ for all $h\ge2$
  3. $\alpha(h)=0$ for all $h\ge3$
  4. $\alpha(h)\ne0$ for all $h\ge1$
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Answer: (C) $\alpha(h)=0$ for all $h\ge3$. With $\theta_1=\theta_2=0$ the model is a pure AR(2) process. The partial autocorrelation function of an AR($p$) process cuts off after lag $p$, i.e. $\alpha(h)=0$ for all $h>p$. Here $p=2$, so $\alpha(h)=0$ for all $h\ge3$.

Q148. If $\Phi_1=0.4,\ \Phi_2=0.3,\ \theta_1=0.6,\ \theta_2=0.4$, then the process is:
  1. Both stationary and invertible
  2. Stationary but not invertible
  3. Invertible but not stationary
  4. Neither stationary nor invertible
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Answer: (B) Stationary but not invertible. AR part: with $\Phi_1+\Phi_2=0.7<1,\ \Phi_2-\Phi_1=-0.1<1,\ |\Phi_2|<1$, all stationarity conditions hold — the process is stationary. MA part: $1-0.6B-0.4B^2=(1-B)(1+0.4B)$ has a unit root ($\theta_1+\theta_2=1$), so the MA polynomial is not invertible. Hence stationary but not invertible.

Q149. If $\Phi_1=0.6,\ \Phi_2=0,\ \theta_1=0,\ \theta_2=0$, then the autocovariance function $r(h),\ h=0,1,\dots$ is:
  1. $(0.6)^h$
  2. $r(1)=0.6,\ r(0)=1,\ r(h)=0$ for $h\ge2$
  3. $\dfrac{(0.6)^h}{0.64}$
  4. $\dfrac{(0.6)^h}{0.36}$
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Answer: (C) $\dfrac{(0.6)^h}{0.64}$. The model reduces to the AR(1) process $y_t=0.6\,y_{t-1}+\epsilon_t$ with $\sigma^2_\epsilon=1$. Its autocovariance is $r(h)=\phi^{h}\dfrac{\sigma^2_\epsilon}{1-\phi^2}=\dfrac{(0.6)^h}{1-0.36}=\dfrac{(0.6)^h}{0.64}$. (Note $(0.6)^h$ alone is the autocorrelation, not the autocovariance.)

Q150. If $\Phi_1=\Phi_2=0,\ \theta_1=0.7,\ \theta_2=0$, then the spectral density function of the process is:
  1. $[1.49-0.7\cos(2\pi\omega)]^{-1}$
  2. $[1.49+1.4\cos(2\pi\omega)]$
  3. $1.49[1+0.7\cos(2\pi\omega)]$
  4. $[1.49-1.4\cos(2\pi\omega)]^{-1}$
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Answer: (D) $[1.49-1.4\cos(2\pi\omega)]^{-1}$. The model reduces to the MA(1) process $y_t=\epsilon_t-0.7\,\epsilon_{t-1}$ with $\sigma^2=1$. Its spectral density is proportional to $|1-0.7e^{-2\pi i\omega}|^2=1+0.49-1.4\cos(2\pi\omega)=1.49-1.4\cos(2\pi\omega)$. Option D is the only one with these coefficients. Its printed $-1$ exponent is a misprint: an MA spectrum is a polynomial in $\cos(2\pi\omega)$, while the reciprocal form belongs to an AR(1) process.

Complete: Paper I — General Paper (50/50) and Paper II — Statistics, Q51–Q150 (100/100). All 150 questions are transcribed with independently worked, hidden solutions.