Paper I — General Paper
Teaching & Research Aptitude and General Awareness · Q1–Q50
Notes and model MCQs for each Paper I unit: UGC NET Paper I Study Material.
Paper I — Topic Distribution
How the 50 General Paper questions (Q1–Q50) split across the ten UGC NET Paper 1 units. A few questions bridge topics; each is placed in its closest unit, so treat these as an approximate weight-map for revision.
Bars are scaled to the largest unit.
The following table shows the cumulative percentage (%) of the total number of Pen Drives (16 GB and 32 GB) sold and the cumulative number of 16 GB Pen Drives sold by a shopkeeper on four days, Monday through Thursday. Total Pen Drives sold in the four days = 1400.
| Day | Cumulative % of all Pen Drives | Cumulative no. of 16 GB Pen Drives |
|---|---|---|
| Monday | 20% | 160 |
| Till Tuesday | 60% | 400 |
| Till Wednesday | 75% | 530 |
| Till Thursday | 100% | 680 |
Derived daily figures: Total sold — Mon 280, Tue 560, Wed 210, Thu 350. 16 GB — Mon 160, Tue 240, Wed 130, Thu 150. 32 GB — Mon 120, Tue 320, Wed 80, Thu 200.
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Answer: (D) 294. Thursday total = (100−75)% × 1400 = 25% × 1400 = 350. Friday total = 350 × 1.20 = 420. 16 GB share = 7/(7+3) = 7/10, so 16 GB on Friday = 420 × 7/10 = 294.
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Answer: (A) 160. 32 GB: Tuesday = 560−240 = 320, Wednesday = 210−130 = 80, together = 400. 16 GB on Tuesday = 240. Difference = 400 − 240 = 160.
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Answer: (C) 25. 32 GB on Tue, Wed, Thu = 320, 80, 200; average = 600/3 = 200. 16 GB on Monday = 160. Percentage more = (200−160)/160 × 100 = 25%.
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Answer: (A) 80. 32 GB on Monday = 280−160 = 120. 16 GB on Thursday = 680−530 = 150. Required % = 120/150 × 100 = 80%.
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Answer: (B) 7 : 5. 16 GB on Wed + Thu = 130 + 150 = 280. 32 GB on Thursday = 350 − 150 = 200. Ratio = 280 : 200 = 7 : 5.
A. All ducks are birds. B. Some ducks are birds. C. Some ducks are not birds. D. No ducks are birds.
Choose the correct answer:
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Answer: (B) B and C only. On the square of opposition, B is a particular affirmative (I: “Some S are P”) and C is a particular negative (O: “Some S are not P”). I and O are subcontraries: they cannot both be false (at least one must hold), but they can both be true. Hence B and C.
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Answer: (A) Software. Firmware is a specialised class of software permanently stored in a device's non-volatile memory (ROM/flash) to control its hardware. It is software embedded in hardware — not hardware itself, and not a compiler.
A. $\mu=13,\ \frac1N\sum x_i^2=178$ B. $\mu=14,\ \frac1N\sum x_i^2=212$ C. $\mu=15,\ \frac1N\sum x_i^2=229$ D. $\mu=16,\ \frac1N\sum x_i^2=281$
I. 2 II. 3 III. 4 IV. 5
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Answer: (D) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV. Use $\sigma=\sqrt{\frac1N\sum x_i^2-\mu^2}$. A: $\sqrt{178-169}=3$ (II). B: $\sqrt{212-196}=4$ (III). C: $\sqrt{229-225}=2$ (I). D: $\sqrt{281-256}=5$ (IV). So A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV.
A. Snooping means secretly listening to a conversation. B. Worm is a firewall. C. Keylogger is a network security system. D. HTTP is a type of cookies. E. Cookies are used to store browsing information.
Choose the correct answer:
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Answer: (D) A and E only. A is true (snooping = secretly monitoring/listening). E is true (cookies store browsing/session information). B is false (a worm is malware, not a firewall), C is false (a keylogger is spyware, not a security system), D is false (HTTP is a protocol, not a cookie). Correct: A and E only.
A. 1G B. 2G C. 3G D. 4G
I. Interactive Multimedia II. Digital voice and data services III. Voice call transmitted in digital form IV. Voice call transmitted in analog form
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Answer: (C) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I. 1G = analog voice (IV); 2G = voice transmitted in digital form (III); 3G = digital voice + data services (II); 4G = interactive multimedia (I). So A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I.
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Answer: (B) 1512. The rule is $a_n=a_{n-1}\times(n-1)+2(n-1)$: 8→10→24→78→320. Next should be $320\times5+10=1610$, then $1610\times6+12=9672$ (which matches). So the wrong term is 1512 (should be 1610).
A. Skill India Mission B. Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) C. Skill Hub D. Micro-Credentials
I. Nodal Skill Centres II. Skill-based Courses and Training Programme III. Skill Ecosystem IV. Skill Development and Vocational Training opportunities
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Answer: (D) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II. Skill India Mission builds the overall skill ecosystem (III); PMKVY provides skill development and vocational training (IV); Skill Hubs act as nodal skill centres (I); Micro-Credentials are short skill-based courses (II). So A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II.
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Answer: (D) Līlāvatī. Līlāvatī, written by Bhāskara II (12th century), is a classic Indian treatise on arithmetic and mathematics. Sāṃkhya Kārikā and Sāṃkhya Kaumudī are philosophical (Sāṃkhya) texts, and Arthasaṃgraha is a work on Mīmāṃsā.
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Answer: (C) 6457152. From the codes: C=6, H=4, A=7, I=3, R=2 and E=5, A=7, T=1. So CHEATER = C·H·E·A·T·E·R = 6·4·5·7·1·5·2 = 6457152.
A. Interpersonal B. Mass C. Intrapersonal D. Group E. Travelling
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Answer: (C) A, B, C and D only. Interpersonal, mass, intrapersonal and group are all recognised types of communication. “Travelling” is not a type of communication. Correct: A, B, C and D only.
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Answer: (A) Pitāmah. The eldest male patriarch who headed the joint family was the Pitāmah (grandsire/patriarch). A Rishi is a sage, a Guru is a teacher, and a Dīkshā Guru is an initiating spiritual teacher.
A. Smriti Irani B. Prakash Javadekar C. Dharmendra Pradhan D. Ramesh Pokhriyal E. M. M. Pallam Raju
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Answer: (B) E, A, B, D and C. Order of tenure: M. M. Pallam Raju (2012–14) → Smriti Irani (2014–16) → Prakash Javadekar (2016–19) → Ramesh Pokhriyal (2019–21) → Dharmendra Pradhan (2021– ). So E, A, B, D, C.
A. Operational stage B. Pre-operational stage C. Sensorimotor stage D. Concrete operational stage E. Preconceptual thought stage
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Answer: (B) C, E, B, D, A. Piaget's developmental sequence by age begins with the Sensorimotor stage (C), then the preconceptual thought sub-stage (E) at the start of the pre-operational stage (B), followed by the Concrete operational stage (D) and finally the (formal) Operational stage (A): C, E, B, D, A.
A. Transistor B. Vacuum Tube C. Very large scale integrated circuit D. Ultra large scale integrated circuit E. Integrated circuit
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Answer: (C) B, A, E, C, D. Computer generations: 1st Vacuum Tube (B) → 2nd Transistor (A) → 3rd Integrated Circuit (E) → 4th VLSI (C) → 5th ULSI (D). So B, A, E, C, D.
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Answer: (C) Fallacy of Division. A property of the whole (a “big” country) is wrongly transferred to a member of it (a “big” poet). Concluding that what is true of the whole must be true of its parts is the Fallacy of Division.
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Answer: (A) Activated Sludge. The activated sludge process uses micro-organisms to biologically (biochemically) break down organic matter. Sedimentation, filtration and the grit chamber are physical (mechanical) treatment stages.
A. n=5, p=0.4 B. n=6, p=0.6 C. n=8, p=0.3 D. n=7, p=0.7
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Answer: (D) A, B, D, C. Variance = npq. A: 5(0.4)(0.6)=1.20; B: 6(0.6)(0.4)=1.44; D: 7(0.7)(0.3)=1.47; C: 8(0.3)(0.7)=1.68. Ascending: A < B < D < C.
A. Natural Science B. Chemistry C. Science D. Organic Chemistry
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Answer: (A) C, A, B, D. Greater denotation = wider extension (refers to more things). Science ⊃ Natural Science ⊃ Chemistry ⊃ Organic Chemistry, so decreasing denotation is C, A, B, D.
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Answer: (A) Tradition, personal experiences, intuition or authority and all subjective approaches. Field-study, experimental and historical methods are systematic scientific methods. Relying on tradition, personal experience, intuition or authority is a non-scientific (subjective) way of acquiring knowledge.
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Answer: (A) It describes social situations, events, systems and structures — the researcher observes and then describes what is found. Descriptive research describes the characteristics of a phenomenon as observed. Explaining causes is explanatory research; studying little-known subjects is exploratory research; common-sense belief is not scientific research.
A. It is a kind of water pollution. B. It can be caused by thermal power plants. C. It can severely affect aquatic life. D. It increases the Dissolved Oxygen (DO) of a water body.
Choose the correct answer:
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Answer: (C) A, B and C only. Thermal pollution is a form of water pollution (A), often from power-plant cooling water (B), and it harms aquatic life (C). It decreases dissolved oxygen (warmer water holds less O₂), so D is false. Correct: A, B and C only.
A. Holistic B. Integrated C. Enjoyable D. Flexible E. Engaging
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Answer: (D) A, B, C, D and E. NEP 2020 advocates that school curriculum and pedagogy be holistic, integrated, enjoyable, flexible and engaging — i.e. all five qualities.
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Answer: (B) Anumāna (Inference). Inference (Anumāna) rests on vyāpti — the invariable concomitance between the reason (hetu) and the inferred object (e.g. smoke and fire). Perception, analogy and verbal testimony do not rely on concomitance.
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Answer: (C) Network Interface Card. An Ethernet card is also called a Network Interface Card (NIC) — the hardware that connects a computer to a network.
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Answer: (D) ₹2000. Equal %: 1920 − CP = CP − 1280 ⟹ 2·CP = 3200 ⟹ CP = ₹1600. For 25% profit, SP = 1600 × 1.25 = ₹2000.
A. $\frac38$ is what part of $\frac1{12}$? B. Which number gives the same result when added to $1\frac12$ and when multiplied by $1\frac12$? C. $\frac{5}{12}$ of which number equals $3\frac34$ of 100? D. By how much does $\frac{6}{7/8}$ exceed $\frac{6/7}{8}$?
I. $6\frac34$ II. 900 III. $\frac92$ IV. 3
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Answer: (D) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I. A: $(3/8)\div(1/12)=9/2$ (III). B: $x+1.5=1.5x\Rightarrow x=3$ (IV). C: $(5/12)N=375\Rightarrow N=900$ (II). D: $48/7-3/28=189/28=6\tfrac34$ (I). So A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I.
A. Intrapersonal B. Interpersonal C. Group D. Mass
I. Direct face-to-face communication between two persons II. Theatre, dance performances and Rama Lila III. Books, Press, Cinema, Radio and Television IV. Contemplation and talking with self
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Answer: (C) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III. Intrapersonal = talking with oneself (IV); Interpersonal = face-to-face between two persons (I); Group = theatre/dance/Rama Lila (II); Mass = press, cinema, radio, TV (III). So A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III.
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Answer: (C) Raja Harishchandra. Raja Harishchandra (1913), directed by Dadasaheb Phalke, was India's first full-length feature film. (Alam Ara, 1931, was the first Indian sound film/talkie.)
A. It measures the impact upon people. B. It is also known as hazard manager's scale. C. Scale size in MMS is much smaller than the Richter Scale. D. It uses a linear scale for measurement.
Choose the correct answer:
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Answer: (D) A, C and D only. The Modified Mercalli scale grades intensity: what people feel and what happens to buildings and the ground, so A is true. It runs in twelve descriptive steps, I to XII, a small closed scale beside the open-ended Richter magnitude scale, where each step is a tenfold change in wave amplitude, so C is true. Its steps are equal descriptive grades, not powers of ten, so it is a linear scale and D is true. It is not known as a “hazard manager's scale”, so B is false.
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Answer: (C) Alam Ara. Alam Ara (1931), directed by Ardeshir Irani, was India's first sound (talkie) feature film.
A. ICT-based teaching B. CBCS (Choice Based Credit System) C. CBT (Computer Based Test) D. SWAYAM
I. Automated and instant evaluation II. Online education initiative by MHRD III. Use of digital tools IV. Flexibility in course selection
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Answer: (A) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II. ICT-based teaching = use of digital tools (III); CBCS = flexibility in course selection (IV); CBT = automated, instant evaluation (I); SWAYAM = MHRD's online education initiative (II). So A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II.
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Answer: (C) Reduce chances of suffering from Alzheimer's and senile dementia. Lifelong learning keeps the brain active and reduces the chances of Alzheimer's and dementia — it does not guarantee complete immunity, so “never” (option 1) is too absolute.
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Answer: (B) 280 ppmv. Pre-industrial atmospheric CO₂ was about 280 ppmv (parts per million by volume).
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Answer: (B) Fannie Shaftel. The Role-Playing model of teaching (in the social family of models) was developed by Fannie Shaftel (and George Shaftel).
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Answer: (D) ₹625. For 2 years, CI − SI = $P\left(\frac{r}{100}\right)^2$. So $1 = P(0.04)^2 = 0.0016P \Rightarrow P = \dfrac{1}{0.0016} = $ ₹625.
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Answer: (D) Asking students to examine the material from alternative points of view. Active learning engages students in higher-order thinking. Asking students to examine material from alternative points of view makes them analyse and evaluate actively, rather than passively receiving information.
A. Some animals are not birds. B. No animals are birds. C. All animals are birds. D. No birds are animals.
Choose the correct answer:
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Answer: (B) B only. “Some animals are birds” is true, so its contradictory “No animals are birds” (B) is false. “No birds are animals” (D) says the same as B, so it is false too. “Some animals are not birds” (A) and “All animals are birds” (C) cannot be decided from the statement: they may be true. Every option except “B only” includes A or C, so B only is the one option made entirely of statements known to be false.
A. Directorate of Film Festivals B. National Film Development Corporation C. Film and TV Institute of India, Pune D. Films Division E. Central Board of Film Certification
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Answer: (A) D, E, C, A, B. Years of establishment: Films Division 1948 (D) → Central Board of Film Certification 1951 (E) → FTII Pune 1960 (C) → Directorate of Film Festivals 1973 (A) → NFDC 1975 (B). So D, E, C, A, B.
A. Accuracy B. Precision C. Systematization D. Objectivity E. Uncontrolled condition
Choose the correct answer:
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Answer: (C) A, B, C and D only. Scientific research is accurate, precise, systematic and objective (A, B, C, D). It is controlled, not uncontrolled, so E is not a characteristic. Correct: A, B, C and D only.
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Answer: (D) Methemoglobinemia. Blue baby syndrome is methemoglobinemia, caused by high nitrate levels in drinking water that impair the blood's oxygen-carrying capacity, giving infants a bluish tint.
Read the following passage and answer the questions.
Linguistic diversity divides a nation in terms of regional languages. After independence, state organization was undertaken on the basis of languages. Hindi is not acceptable to southern states. English finds no mention in the VIII Schedule of our Constitution. Yet it is a pity that it has taken the role of our national language. For genuine national integration, the fruit of economic development should be shared by each and every section of society. Otherwise, the have-nots never think in terms of national unity. Tension and a sense of injustice among people is bound to hinder the progress of national integration. Economic development and removal of economic disparities play a vital role in the interest of national integration. Therefore, economic integration will certainly lead to national integration. There must be psychological, emotional, cultural and economic integration among the masses. This implies that people must change their loyalties from petty issues to the nation as a whole. Who lives if India dies?
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Answer: (D) In terms of regional languages. The passage opens: “Linguistic diversity divides a nation in terms of regional languages.”
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Answer: (C) Cultural. The passage states there must be “psychological, emotional, cultural and economic integration among the masses.” Of the options, only Cultural is mentioned.
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Answer: (B) Economic disparities. The passage stresses that removal of economic disparities is vital, and that tension and injustice from such disparities hinder national integration.
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Answer: (B) English. The passage explicitly says “English finds no mention in the VIII Schedule of our Constitution.” Tamil, Maithili and Malayalam are all listed there; English is not.
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Answer: (D) Feeling of injustice. The passage says “Tension and a sense of injustice among people is bound to hinder the progress of national integration.” Hence a feeling of injustice is harmful.
Paper II — Statistics (Code 107)
Subject paper · Q51–Q150
Paper II — Topic Distribution
How the 100 Statistics questions (Q51–Q150) split across the ten syllabus units. A few questions bridge topics; each is placed in its closest unit, so treat these as an approximate weight-map for revision.
Click a unit name to jump to that study unit. Bars are scaled to the largest unit.
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Answer: (D) $\max\{\nu(A),\nu(B)\}\le \nu(AB)\le \nu(A)+\nu(B)$. Use Sylvester\'s rank inequality $\operatorname{rank}(A)+\operatorname{rank}(B)-n\le \operatorname{rank}(AB)\le \min\{\operatorname{rank}(A),\operatorname{rank}(B)\}$ together with nullity $\nu(M)=n-\operatorname{rank}(M)$. The upper bound $\operatorname{rank}(AB)\le\min\{\operatorname{rank}A,\operatorname{rank}B\}$ becomes $\nu(AB)\ge\max\{\nu(A),\nu(B)\}$, giving the lower bound. The lower bound $\operatorname{rank}(AB)\ge\operatorname{rank}A+\operatorname{rank}B-n$ becomes $\nu(AB)\le\nu(A)+\nu(B)$, giving the upper bound. Hence $\max\{\nu(A),\nu(B)\}\le\nu(AB)\le\nu(A)+\nu(B)$.
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Answer: (B) $\left(\tfrac{3}{16},\ \tfrac{81}{128}\right)$. The rejection region is $X>3$, i.e. $X\ge 4$, where $X\sim\text{Bin}(5,p)$. Size $=P(X\ge4\mid p=\tfrac12)=\binom54(\tfrac12)^5+\binom55(\tfrac12)^5=\tfrac{5+1}{32}=\tfrac{6}{32}=\tfrac{3}{16}$. Power $=P(X\ge4\mid p=\tfrac34)=\binom54(\tfrac34)^4(\tfrac14)+(\tfrac34)^5=\tfrac{405}{1024}+\tfrac{243}{1024}=\tfrac{648}{1024}=\tfrac{81}{128}$. Hence $(\tfrac{3}{16},\tfrac{81}{128})$.
| LIST-I | LIST-II |
|---|---|
| A. Chi-square test | I. One-way ANOVA |
| B. Wilcoxon signed rank test | II. Homogeneity in a contingency table |
| C. Mann–Whitney U-test | III. To compare the means of two independent populations |
| D. Kruskal–Wallis test | IV. To compare the means of two related populations |
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Answer: (A) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I. The chi-square test checks homogeneity/independence in a contingency table (A–II). The Wilcoxon signed-rank test is the nonparametric test for two related (paired) samples (B–IV). The Mann–Whitney U-test compares two independent samples (C–III). The Kruskal–Wallis test is the nonparametric analogue of one-way ANOVA (D–I). Hence A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I.
A. The first principal component is $Y_1=\tfrac{1}{\sqrt3}\sum_{i=1}^{3}X_i$.
B. The largest eigenvalue of $\Sigma$ is 3.
C. The first principal component explains approximately 66.7% of total variance.
D. The smallest eigenvalue is $\tfrac12$.
Choose the correct answer:
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Answer: (D) A, C, D only. $\Sigma$ is an equicorrelation matrix (diagonal 1, off-diagonal $\rho=\tfrac12$) of order 3. Its eigenvalues are $1+(n-1)\rho=1+2(\tfrac12)=2$ (eigenvector $\tfrac{1}{\sqrt3}(1,1,1)$) and $1-\rho=\tfrac12$ (multiplicity 2). So A is true (first PC is the equally-weighted average direction), C is true ($2/\text{trace}=2/3\approx66.7\%$) and D is true (smallest eigenvalue $=\tfrac12$). B is false: the largest eigenvalue is 2, not 3. Hence A, C, D only.
| Source | Sum of squares | d.f. |
|---|---|---|
| RF Power | 66870.00 | 3 |
| Error | 5344.00 | 16 |
| Total | 72214.00 | 19 |
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Answer: (C) 66.7365. $F=\dfrac{\text{MS}_{\text{treatment}}}{\text{MS}_{\text{error}}}=\dfrac{66870/3}{5344/16}=\dfrac{22290}{334}\approx 66.74$.
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Answer: (C) 7.0. Sample mean $\bar X=(3,3)$, so $d=\bar X-\mu_0=(-0.5,\,0.5)$. The sample covariance (divisor $n-1=2$) is $S=\begin{pmatrix}3&1.5\\1.5&1\end{pmatrix}$, with $\det S=0.75$ and $S^{-1}=\begin{pmatrix}4/3&-2\\-2&4\end{pmatrix}$. Then $d\'S^{-1}d=(-0.5)(-\tfrac53)+(0.5)(3)=\tfrac56+\tfrac32=\tfrac73$, and $T^2=n\,d\'S^{-1}d=3\cdot\tfrac73=7.0$.
A. $\bar X_n\xrightarrow{P}1+\theta$, where $\bar X_n=\tfrac1n\sum_{i=1}^n X_i$.
B. If $Y=\min(X_1,\dots,X_n)$ then $f(y)=n\,e^{-n(y-\theta)},\ y\ge\theta$.
C. $V(\bar X_n)=n$.
D. $\bar X_n\xrightarrow{L}\theta$.
Choose the correct answer:
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Answer: (A) A, B only. This is a shifted (location) exponential with $E(X)=\theta+1$ and $V(X)=1$. A is true: by the WLLN $\bar X_n\xrightarrow{P}E(X)=1+\theta$. B is true: the minimum of $n$ iid unit-rate exponentials shifted by $\theta$ has rate $n$, so $f_Y(y)=n\,e^{-n(y-\theta)},\ y\ge\theta$. C is false: $V(\bar X_n)=V(X)/n=1/n$, not $n$. D is false: $\bar X_n$ converges to $1+\theta$, not $\theta$. Hence A, B only.
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Answer: (D) $\sigma^2(I_n-P)$. $P$ is the (symmetric, idempotent) hat matrix, so $M=I_n-P$ is also symmetric and idempotent with $MX=0$. Hence $e=My=M(X\beta+u)=Mu$, and $E(ee\')=M\,E(uu\')\,M\'=\sigma^2 MM=\sigma^2 M=\sigma^2(I_n-P)$.
A.
> y = A * xB.
> diag(y)C.
> x <- c(1, 2, 3)D.
[1] 1 10 27E.
> A <- matrix(c(1:9), 3, 3)Choose the correct answer:
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Answer: (D) E, C, A, B, D. A valid session must first create the objects, then operate on them, then print output. First define the matrix (E), then the vector (C); compute the element-wise product $y=A*x$ (A); extract its diagonal with diag(y) (B); the console then prints the result (D). Hence the order is E, C, A, B, D.
> x <- 3> f = function(y) { x <- 5 x + y}> f(4)The output of the program is:
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Answer: (B) 9. Inside the function the assignment x <- 5 creates a local variable that shadows the global x = 3. The last evaluated expression x + y uses this local value, so f(4) returns $5+4=9$.
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Answer: (D) $1-\dfrac{1}{2^{n(n+1)/2}}$. $P(\text{at least one})=1-\prod_{i=1}^{n}P(A_i^c)=1-\prod_{i=1}^{n}\dfrac{1}{2^i}=1-\dfrac{1}{2^{1+2+\cdots+n}}=1-\dfrac{1}{2^{n(n+1)/2}}$.
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Answer: (C) $r_k=(-0.4)^k$. The AR polynomial factors as $1-0.6B-0.4B^2=(1-B)(1+0.4B)$, which contains a unit root. So $(1+0.4B)(1-B)y_t=\epsilon_t$, i.e. $(1+0.4B)\Delta y_t=\epsilon_t$. Hence $\Delta y_t=-0.4\,\Delta y_{t-1}+\epsilon_t$ is an AR(1) with parameter $\phi=-0.4$, whose autocorrelation function is $r_k=\phi^k=(-0.4)^k$.
A. Simple random sampling with replacement is more efficient than simple random sampling without replacement.
B. In the ratio method of estimation, the usual ratio estimator $\bar y_R$ of the population mean $\bar Y$ is a biased estimator.
C. If the intraclass correlation between elements of a cluster is negative, cluster sampling is more efficient than SRSWOR.
D. If the intraclass correlation between units of a column is greater than $\dfrac{-1}{kn-1}$, systematic sampling is superior to simple random sampling.
Choose the correct answer:
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Answer: (A) B and C only. A is false: SRSWOR is more efficient than SRSWR (the finite population correction reduces the variance). B is true: the ratio estimator is biased, with bias of order $1/n$. C is true: cluster sampling beats SRSWOR when the intraclass correlation is negative (elements within a cluster are dissimilar). D is false: systematic sampling is superior only when the intraclass correlation is less than $-1/(kn-1)$, not greater. Hence B and C only.
| LIST-I | LIST-II |
|---|---|
| A. Simple Random Sampling | I. To give due weightage to larger units |
| B. Stratified Random Sampling | II. Sampling frame is not available |
| C. Cluster Sampling | III. Homogeneous population |
| D. Sampling with varying probabilities | IV. Heterogeneous population |
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Answer: (D) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I. Simple random sampling works best for a homogeneous population (A–III). Stratified sampling is used for a heterogeneous population, splitting it into homogeneous strata (B–IV). Cluster sampling is adopted when a complete sampling frame of elements is unavailable (C–II). Sampling with varying probabilities (PPS) gives due weightage to larger units (D–I). Hence A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I.
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Answer: (D) $T_1+(n-r)T_2$. Under Type-II censoring at the $r$th failure, the total time on test $S=\sum_{i=1}^{r}X_{(i)}+(n-r)X_{(r)}$ satisfies $E(S)=r\theta$, so $S/r$ is unbiased for $\theta$. Now $S/r=\dfrac{1}{r}\sum X_{(i)}+(n-r)\dfrac{X_{(r)}}{r}=T_1+(n-r)T_2$.
A. Checking the assumptions of the test.
B. Calculation of the test statistic.
C. Formation of the hypothesis.
D. Comparing with the tabulated values.
E. Drawing the inference.
Choose the correct answer:
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Answer: (D) C, A, B, D, E. A test proceeds as: first form the hypotheses (C), then check the assumptions of the chosen test (A), compute the test statistic (B), compare with the tabulated critical value (D), and finally draw the inference (E). Hence C, A, B, D, E.
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Answer: (D) 48. $M_X(t)=e^{2t+2t^2}$ matches the normal MGF $e^{\mu t+\sigma^2 t^2/2}$ with $\mu=2$ and $\sigma^2=4$. For a normal distribution the fourth central moment is $\mu_4=3\sigma^4=3(4)^2=48$.
A. $f(x)$ is continuous and differentiable at all points.
B. $f(x)$ is not differentiable at $x=1$.
C. Rolle\'s theorem is applicable on $[0,2]$.
D. Rolle\'s theorem is not applicable on $[0,2]$.
Choose the correct answer:
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Answer: (D) B, D only. At $x=1$: left value $1^2+1=2$, right value $3-1=2$, so $f$ is continuous. But the left derivative $2x\big|_{1}=2$ and right derivative $-1$ differ, so $f$ is not differentiable at $x=1$ (B true, A false). Rolle\'s theorem needs differentiability on the whole open interval; since it fails at $x=1\in(0,2)$, Rolle\'s theorem is not applicable (D true, C false) — even though $f(0)=f(2)=1$. Hence B, D only.
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Answer: (B) $\dfrac16(y_1+2y_2+y_3),\ \dfrac12(y_1-y_3)$. With design matrix $X=\begin{pmatrix}1&1\\2&0\\1&-1\end{pmatrix}$, the errors are homoscedastic and uncorrelated, so the BLUE is OLS: $\hat\beta=(X\'X)^{-1}X\'y$. Here $X\'X=\begin{pmatrix}6&0\\0&2\end{pmatrix}$ and $X\'y=\begin{pmatrix}y_1+2y_2+y_3\\ y_1-y_3\end{pmatrix}$, giving $\hat\beta_1=\tfrac16(y_1+2y_2+y_3)$ and $\hat\beta_2=\tfrac12(y_1-y_3)$.
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Answer: (D) $\dfrac{\lambda+1}{\lambda^2}$. Using the law of total variance with $X\sim\text{Exp}$ (mean $1/\lambda$, variance $1/\lambda^2$) and $Y\mid X\sim\text{Poisson}(X)$: $\mathrm{Var}(Y)=E[\mathrm{Var}(Y\mid X)]+\mathrm{Var}[E(Y\mid X)]=E(X)+\mathrm{Var}(X)=\dfrac1\lambda+\dfrac{1}{\lambda^2}=\dfrac{\lambda+1}{\lambda^2}$.
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Answer: (B) $\begin{pmatrix}-3\\0\end{pmatrix},\ \begin{pmatrix}2&1\\1&1\end{pmatrix}$. Partition with $\mu_1=2,\ \mu_2=(-2,1)\',\ \Sigma_{11}=1,\ \Sigma_{21}=(1,1)\',\ \Sigma_{22}=\begin{pmatrix}3&2\\2&2\end{pmatrix}$. Conditional mean $=\mu_2+\Sigma_{21}\Sigma_{11}^{-1}(x_1-\mu_1)=(-2,1)\'+(1,1)\'(1-2)=(-3,0)\'$. Conditional variance $=\Sigma_{22}-\Sigma_{21}\Sigma_{11}^{-1}\Sigma_{12}=\begin{pmatrix}3&2\\2&2\end{pmatrix}-\begin{pmatrix}1&1\\1&1\end{pmatrix}=\begin{pmatrix}2&1\\1&1\end{pmatrix}$.
| LIST-I (R command) | LIST-II (output) |
|---|---|
A. > x <- c(12,4,-8,54,23,-51); x | I. [1] 4 3 2 6 5 1 |
B. > sort(c(12,4,-8,54,23,-51)) | II. [1] 6 3 2 1 5 4 |
C. > rank(c(12,4,-8,54,23,-51)) | III. [1] 12 4 -8 54 23 -51 |
D. > order(c(12,4,-8,54,23,-51)) | IV. [1] -51 -8 4 12 23 54 |
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Answer: (C) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II. x just echoes the vector (A–III). sort returns the values in ascending order $-51,-8,4,12,23,54$ (B–IV). rank gives each element\'s ascending rank: $4,3,2,6,5,1$ (C–I). order gives the indices that sort the vector: $6,3,2,1,5,4$ (D–II). Hence A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II.
A. $\displaystyle\int_0^\infty 2x[1-F(x)]\,dx=E(X^2)$
B. $\displaystyle\int_0^\infty [1-F(x)]\,dx=E(X)$
C. $E\!\left(\tfrac1X\right)\le\dfrac{1}{E(X)}$
D. $E(\log X)\le\log E(X)$
Choose the correct answer:
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Answer: (C) A, B and D. For a non-negative random variable the tail-integral identities give $E(X)=\int_0^\infty[1-F(x)]dx$ (B true) and $E(X^2)=\int_0^\infty 2x[1-F(x)]dx$ (A true). By Jensen\'s inequality with the convex function $1/x$, $E(1/X)\ge 1/E(X)$, so C (with $\le$) is false. With the concave function $\log$, $E(\log X)\le\log E(X)$, so D is true. Hence A, B and D.
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Answer: (B) $\dfrac{2^5}{3^4}$. Given the total $N_1+N_2=n$, $N_1$ is Binomial$(n,p)$ with $p=\dfrac{\lambda}{\lambda+2\lambda}=\tfrac13$. Hence $P(N_1=1\mid \text{sum}=4)=\binom41(\tfrac13)(\tfrac23)^3=4\cdot\tfrac13\cdot\tfrac{8}{27}=\tfrac{32}{81}=\dfrac{2^5}{3^4}$.
| Year | Crude oil | Gasoline |
|---|---|---|
| 1 | 77.91 | 65.46 |
| 2 | 82.00 | 64.18 |
| 3 | 89.20 | 65.66 |
| 4 | 73.37 | 59.23 |
| 5 | 66.42 | 65.68 |
| 6 | 80.10 | 69.55 |
| 7 | 69.78 | 67.81 |
| 8 | 72.09 | 67.39 |
| 9 | 92.14 | 82.06 |
| 10 | 96.31 | 84.40 |
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Answer: (B) 0.345. Ranking each series and taking rank differences $d$ gives $\sum d^2=108$ (the year-by-year $d^2$ values are 4, 25, 16, 9, 16, 4, 25, 9, 0, 0). Then $\rho=1-\dfrac{6\sum d^2}{n(n^2-1)}=1-\dfrac{6\times108}{10\times99}=1-0.6545\approx0.345$.
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Answer: (A) $\mu$ when $\sigma^2$ is known. $\dfrac{\bar X-\mu}{\sigma/\sqrt n}\sim N(0,1)$, whose distribution is free of unknown parameters. It can serve as a pivot only when $\sigma$ is a known constant; then it depends on the data and on the single unknown $\mu$, giving a confidence interval for $\mu$. Hence it is a pivot for $\mu$ when $\sigma^2$ is known.
| LIST-I | LIST-II |
|---|---|
| A. Testing equality of means of two populations when population variances are known | I. $\chi^2$-test |
| B. Testing equality of variances of two normal populations | II. t-test |
| C. Testing equality of several population proportions | III. F-test |
| D. Testing significance of mean in a single population with unknown variance | IV. Z-test |
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Answer: (C) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II. Two means with known variances → Z-test (A–IV). Ratio of two normal variances → F-test (B–III). Equality of several proportions → $\chi^2$-test (C–I). Single mean with unknown variance → t-test (D–II). Hence A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II.
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Answer: (D) $2^{1/4}$. Since $2^{u}$ is increasing, maximize the exponent $g(x)=x(1-x)=x-x^2$. Setting $g\'(x)=1-2x=0$ gives $x=\tfrac12$, where $g=\tfrac14$. Hence the maximum of $f$ is $2^{1/4}$.
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Answer: (D) No UMP test exists. The exponential family has monotone likelihood ratio, so a UMP test exists for a one-sided alternative. But for the two-sided alternative $H_1:\theta\ne\theta_0$ the best rejection region differs on the two sides, so no single test is uniformly most powerful. Hence no UMP test exists (only a UMP unbiased test does).
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Answer: (C) (4, 6). With $t=|x-5|$ and $a_n=\dfrac{1}{(n+1)(n+2)}$, the ratio test gives $\lim\left|\dfrac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}\right|=\lim\dfrac{(n+1)(n+2)}{(n+2)(n+3)}=1$, so the radius of convergence is 1. Thus the series converges for $|x-5|<1$, i.e. $4<x<6$.
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Answer: (B) $\lambda^{-1}$ is an eigenvalue of $A^{-1}$ and the corresponding eigenvector is $x$. From $Ax=\lambda x$ (with $\lambda\ne0$ since $A$ is invertible), multiply by $A^{-1}$: $x=\lambda A^{-1}x$, so $A^{-1}x=\tfrac{1}{\lambda}x$. Thus $\lambda^{-1}$ is an eigenvalue of $A^{-1}$ with the same eigenvector $x$.
A. $E(h\mid T)$ is unbiased for $\theta$.
B. $\mathrm{Var}\{E(h\mid T)\}\le\mathrm{Var}(h)$.
C. $E(h\mid T)$ is the unique UMVUE of $\theta$.
D. $E(h\mid T)$ is independent of $\theta$.
Choose the correct answer:
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Answer: (D) A, B, D only. By the Rao–Blackwell theorem, $E(h\mid T)$ is unbiased (A) and has variance no larger than $h$ (B). Because $T$ is sufficient, the conditional distribution given $T$ is free of $\theta$, so $E(h\mid T)$ is a genuine statistic not depending on $\theta$ (D). Statement C is false: uniqueness/UMVUE status requires $T$ to be complete sufficient (Lehmann–Scheffé), which is not assumed here. Hence A, B, D only.
A.
> y = xB.
> x <- c(1, -1, 3.5, 2)C.
[1] 1.00 1.00 12.25 4.00D.
> y^2Choose the correct answer:
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Answer: (D) B, A, D, C. First create the vector $x=(1,-1,3.5,2)$ (B), copy it to $y$ (A), then evaluate $y^2$ (D); the console prints $(1,1,12.25,4)$ (C). Hence B, A, D, C.
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Answer: (B) $C_1=C_2$. Communication of states is an equivalence relation (reflexive, symmetric, transitive). Since $k\leftrightarrow i$ and $k\leftrightarrow j$, transitivity gives $i\leftrightarrow j$, so $i$ and $j$ lie in the same communicating class. Hence $C_1=C_2$ (and $k$ belongs to it, states in a class share the same period).
| LIST-I | LIST-II |
|---|---|
| A. P. C. Mahalanobis | I. Partially Balanced Incomplete Block Design (PBIBD) |
| B. P. V. Sukhatme | II. Multivariate hypothesis testing |
| C. R. C. Bose | III. Ordered estimates in sampling with varying probabilities and WOR |
| D. S. N. Roy | IV. Distance measure in multivariate analysis |
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Answer: (C) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II. P. C. Mahalanobis — the Mahalanobis distance in multivariate analysis (A–IV). P. V. Sukhatme — sampling theory, including ordered estimates in PPS sampling without replacement (B–III). R. C. Bose — partially balanced incomplete block designs (C–I). S. N. Roy — the union–intersection principle and largest-root test in multivariate hypothesis testing (D–II). Hence A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II.
f = function(n) { x = 1 for (i in 1:n) { x = x * i } x}f(5)Which of the following is the output?
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Answer: (D) 120. The loop multiplies $x$ by $i$ for $i=1,2,3,4,5$, computing the factorial $5!=1\cdot2\cdot3\cdot4\cdot5=120$. Hence f(5) returns 120.
A. $X_1$ and $X_2$
B. $(X_1,X_2)$ and $X_3$
C. $X_2$ and $(X_2+2X_1)$
D. $\dfrac{X_2+X_3}{2}$ and $\dfrac{X_1+X_2}{2}$
Choose the correct answer:
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Answer: (C) B, C only. For jointly normal variables, independence $\Leftrightarrow$ zero covariance. A: $\mathrm{Cov}(X_1,X_2)=-1\ne0$ → dependent. B: $\mathrm{Cov}(X_3,X_1)=\mathrm{Cov}(X_3,X_2)=0$, so $X_3$ is independent of $(X_1,X_2)$ → true. C: $\mathrm{Cov}(X_2,X_2+2X_1)=\mathrm{Var}(X_2)+2\mathrm{Cov}(X_2,X_1)=2+2(-1)=0$ → independent. D: $\tfrac14[\mathrm{Cov}(X_2,X_1)+\mathrm{Var}(X_2)+\mathrm{Cov}(X_3,X_1)+\mathrm{Cov}(X_3,X_2)]=\tfrac14(-1+2+0+0)=\tfrac14\ne0$ → dependent. Hence B, C only.
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Answer: (C) Estimates are biased. Near multicollinearity inflates the variances of the OLS estimates — producing unstable, large-magnitude coefficients with high standard errors, insignificant $t$-values despite a high $R^2$. However, OLS estimates remain unbiased under multicollinearity; only their precision suffers. Hence “estimates are biased” is not a consequence.
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Answer: (B) $Z\sim W_4(5,I_4)$. $XX\'=\sum_{i=1}^{2}X_iX_i\'\sim W_4(2,\Sigma_1)$, so $\Sigma_1^{-1/2}XX\'\Sigma_1^{-1/2}\sim W_4(2,I_4)$. Likewise $\Sigma_2^{-1/2}YY\'\Sigma_2^{-1/2}\sim W_4(3,I_4)$. Independent Wisharts with the same scale matrix add their degrees of freedom, giving $Z\sim W_4(2+3,I_4)=W_4(5,I_4)$.
A. $X$ and $Y$ are independent.
B. $f_X(x)=\tfrac12,\ -1<x<1$.
C. $X^2$ and $Y^2$ are independent.
D. $E(X^2Y^2)=\tfrac19$.
Choose the correct answer:
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Answer: (B) B, C, D only. Marginals: $f_X(x)=\int_{-1}^1\tfrac14(1+cxy)\,dy=\tfrac12$ (and similarly $f_Y(y)=\tfrac12$), so B is true. But $f_X f_Y=\tfrac14\ne\tfrac14(1+cxy)$ (for $c\ne0$), so $X,Y$ are dependent — A is false. Summing the density over the four sign-combinations of $(x,y)$ shows $(|X|,|Y|)$ is uniform on $(0,1)^2$, hence $X^2$ and $Y^2$ are independent (C true). Finally $E(X^2Y^2)=\tfrac14\big[(\int x^2)(\int y^2)+c(\int x^3)(\int y^3)\big]=\tfrac14\cdot\tfrac49=\tfrac19$ (D true). Hence B, C, D only.
A. $f(x)$ is continuous on $[0,3]$.
B. $f(x)$ is differentiable on $(0,3)$.
C. $\exists$ a number $C\in(0,3)$ such that $f\'(C)=0$.
D. Rolle\'s theorem is satisfied.
Choose the correct answer:
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Answer: (D) A, B, C, D only. $f$ is a polynomial, hence continuous on $[0,3]$ (A) and differentiable on $(0,3)$ (B). Also $f(0)=0=f(3)$, so all three hypotheses of Rolle\'s theorem hold (D). Indeed $f\'(x)=3(x-1)(x-3)$ vanishes at $C=1\in(0,3)$ (C). Hence all of A, B, C, D are correct.
A. $R_{3.12}=R_{2.13}$
B. $r_{13.2}=\tfrac13$
C. $R_{1.23}=\tfrac23$
D. $r_{23.1}=r_{13.2}$
Choose the correct answer:
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Answer: (D) A, B, D only. Here every simple correlation is $\tfrac12$. Partial correlation $r_{13.2}=\dfrac{r_{13}-r_{12}r_{23}}{\sqrt{(1-r_{12}^2)(1-r_{23}^2)}}=\dfrac{\tfrac12-\tfrac14}{\tfrac34}=\tfrac13$ (B true); by symmetry $r_{23.1}=\tfrac13=r_{13.2}$ (D true) and the multiple correlations $R_{3.12}=R_{2.13}$ are equal (A true). For C, $R^2_{1.23}=\dfrac{r_{12}^2+r_{13}^2-2r_{12}r_{13}r_{23}}{1-r_{23}^2}=\dfrac{1/4}{3/4}=\tfrac13$, so $R_{1.23}=1/\sqrt3\approx0.577\ne\tfrac23$ (C false; note it is $1-R^2_{1.23}=\tfrac23$). Hence A, B, D only.
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Answer: (D) $t\mu,\ t\sigma^2_\epsilon$. Iterating from $y_0=0$ gives $y_t=\mu t+\sum_{i=1}^{t}\epsilon_i$. Hence $E(y_t)=t\mu$ and, since the $\epsilon_i$ are uncorrelated, $\mathrm{Var}(y_t)=t\sigma^2_\epsilon$ — both grow with $t$, reflecting the non-stationarity of a random walk.
A. The distribution of $r$ is skewed for values of $r$ closer to 1.
B. The distribution of $r$ is non-degenerate for $-1\le r\le1$.
C. $r$ has a U-shaped arcsine distribution when $n=3$.
D. $r$ follows a $U(-1,1)$ distribution when $n=4$.
Choose the correct answer:
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Answer: (C) A, C, D only. Under $\rho=0$ the null density is $f(r)\propto(1-r^2)^{(n-4)/2},\ -1<r<1$. For $n=3$ the exponent is $-\tfrac12$, giving the U-shaped arcsine density (C true); for $n=4$ the exponent is 0, giving the uniform $U(-1,1)$ density (D true). The sampling distribution of $r$ also becomes increasingly skewed as the true correlation approaches $\pm1$ (A true). Statement B is the odd one out — $r$ is supported on the open interval and the blanket “non-degenerate on $[-1,1]$” claim is not the accepted correct statement. Hence A, C, D only.
A. $\dfrac{n}{\sum_{i=1}^n x_i}$ is the maximum likelihood estimate of $\theta$.
B. $\dfrac{n-1}{\sum_{i=1}^n x_i}$ is the UMVUE of $\theta$.
C. $\sum_{i=1}^n x_i$ is the sufficient statistic for $\theta$.
D. $\sum_{i=1}^n x_i$ follows a Gamma distribution with parameter $(1,\theta)$.
Choose the correct answer:
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Answer: (C) A, B, C only. The log-likelihood $n\ln\theta-\theta\sum x_i$ is maximised at $\hat\theta=n/\sum x_i$ (A true). By factorization $\sum x_i$ is sufficient (C true), and it is complete, with $\sum x_i\sim\text{Gamma(shape }n,\text{ rate }\theta)$ — not $(1,\theta)$ — so D is false. Since $E(1/\sum x_i)=\theta/(n-1)$, the estimator $(n-1)/\sum x_i$ is unbiased and, being a function of the complete sufficient statistic, is the UMVUE (B true). Hence A, B, C only.
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Answer: (C) $\dfrac{X_i}{N\bar X}$. In PPS (probability proportional to size) selection, unit $i$ is chosen with probability $\dfrac{X_i}{\sum_{j=1}^N X_j}$. Since $\sum_j X_j=N\bar X$, this equals $\dfrac{X_i}{N\bar X}$. Lahiri\'s method is precisely a mechanism that realizes these selection probabilities.
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Answer: (B) 2. Every row equals $R_1+k(1,1,0,0)$ for $k=0,1,2,3$, so only two rows are linearly independent (equivalently, column 3 $=2\times$column 4 and column 2 $=$ column 1 $+$ column 3). Hence the rank is 2.
A. $\bar X$ is unbiased for $\lambda$.
B. $S^2$ is unbiased for $\lambda$.
C. $\bar X+S^2$ is unbiased for $\lambda$.
D. $0.3\,\bar X+0.7\,S^2$ is unbiased for $\lambda$.
Choose the correct answer:
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Answer: (D) A, B, D only. For Poisson$(\lambda)$ both the mean and the variance equal $\lambda$, so $E(\bar X)=\lambda$ (A) and $E(S^2)=\lambda$ (B). Any weighted average $a\bar X+(1-a)S^2$ with weights summing to 1 is therefore unbiased: $0.3+0.7=1$ gives $E=\lambda$ (D true). But $\bar X+S^2$ has weights summing to 2, so $E=2\lambda\ne\lambda$ (C false). Hence A, B, D only.
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Answer: (B) $\dfrac32$. Convert covariances to correlations: $r_{12}=r_{13}=\dfrac{1}{\sqrt{4\cdot2}}=\dfrac{1}{2\sqrt2}$ (so $r_{12}^2=\tfrac18$) and $r_{23}=\dfrac{\alpha}{2}$. Then $r_{23.1}=\dfrac{r_{23}-r_{12}r_{13}}{\sqrt{(1-r_{12}^2)(1-r_{13}^2)}}=\dfrac{\alpha/2-1/8}{7/8}=\dfrac{4\alpha-1}{7}$. Setting this equal to $\tfrac57$ gives $4\alpha-1=5$, i.e. $\alpha=\tfrac32$.
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Answer: (B) 0.25, 1.50. $\hat\rho=\dfrac{\sum e_t e_{t-1}}{\sum e_t^2}=\dfrac{1.32}{5.28}=0.25$. The Durbin–Watson statistic $d\approx2(1-\hat\rho)=2(1-0.25)=1.50$.
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Answer: (B) $\dfrac{R^2/(k-1)}{(1-R^2)/(n-k)}$. With $k$ parameters (including the intercept) there are $k-1$ regressors. The overall F-test compares explained to unexplained variation: $F=\dfrac{R^2/(k-1)}{(1-R^2)/(n-k)}$, with $(k-1,\,n-k)$ degrees of freedom.
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Answer: (C) $e^{-x_0/\theta}$. $T(X_1)$ is unbiased for $E[T(X_1)]=P(X_1>X_0)=e^{-X_0/\theta}$ (the exponential survival probability). Since $T_S=\sum X_i$ is a complete sufficient statistic, by the Rao–Blackwell/Lehmann–Scheffé theorems $E[T(X_1)\mid T_S]$ is the UMVUE of $e^{-x_0/\theta}$.
A. $\lambda=\dfrac{\sup_{\theta\in\Theta_0} f(x_1,\dots,x_n,\theta)}{\sup_{\theta\in\Theta} f(x_1,\dots,x_n,\theta)}$
B. $0<\lambda<\infty$
C. $-2\log_e\lambda\sim N(0,1)$ asymptotically
D. The likelihood ratio test is a function of a sufficient statistic for $\theta$.
Choose the correct answer:
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Answer: (C) A, D only. A gives the correct definition of $\lambda$ (A true). Since the numerator is a supremum over a subset of the denominator\'s set, $0\le\lambda\le1$ — not $0<\lambda<\infty$, so B is false. By Wilks\' theorem $-2\log_e\lambda$ is asymptotically $\chi^2$ (not $N(0,1)$), so C is false. Because $\lambda$ depends on the data only through the likelihood, it is a function of the sufficient statistic (D true). Hence A, D only.
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Answer: (B) $\dfrac1n\sum_{i=1}^n x_i^2\xrightarrow{P}4$. Here $E(X)=1,\ \mathrm{Var}(X)=4$, so $E(X^2)=4+1^2=5$. Option 2 is incorrect: by the WLLN $\tfrac1n\sum x_i^2\xrightarrow{P}E(X^2)=5$, not 4. The others are correct: $\tfrac1n\sum x_i\xrightarrow{P}1$ (WLLN), $\tfrac{\sqrt n}{2}(\bar X_n-1)\xrightarrow{d}N(0,1)$ (CLT with $\sigma=2$), and $E(S^2)=4$ (unbiasedness of the sample variance).
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Answer: (A) $\dfrac12$. For a sample of size $n=5$ from $U[0,1]$, the median is the 3rd order statistic. In general $E(X_{(k)})=\dfrac{k}{n+1}$, so $E(X_{(3)})=\dfrac{3}{6}=\dfrac12$.
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Answer: (B) $e^{-4}$. Interarrival times are exponential with rate $\lambda=2$. By the memoryless property, $P(T>6\mid T>4)=P(T>2)=e^{-\lambda\cdot2}=e^{-4}$.
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Answer: (B) 0.51. With $n=50$ observations and $k=5$ parameters, $\bar R^2=1-(1-R^2)\dfrac{n-1}{n-k}=1-(0.45)\dfrac{49}{45}=1-0.49=0.51$.
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Answer: (B) Irreducible and periodic. All three states communicate ($1\to2\to3$ and back), so the chain is irreducible. Returns to any state occur only in an even number of steps ($P^3=P$ means odd powers equal $P$ and even powers equal $P^2$), so the period is 2 — the chain is periodic.
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Answer: (C) $n-k$ eigenvalues of $P$ are 1 and $k$ eigenvalues are 0.. $P=I_n-H$ where $H=X(X\'X)^{-1}X\'$ is the hat matrix — a symmetric idempotent projection of rank $k$. Thus $P$ is also symmetric and idempotent (a projection onto the orthogonal complement) with rank $n-k$. An idempotent matrix has eigenvalues 0 and 1 only; $P$ has eigenvalue 1 with multiplicity $n-k$ and 0 with multiplicity $k$.
ES: 65, 57, 74, 43, 39, 88, 62, 69, 70, 72, 59, 60, 80, 83, 50
LC: 85, 87, 92, 98, 90, 88, 75, 72, 60, 93, 88, 89, 96, 73, 62
To compare the two methods, the Mann–Whitney U-test was applied. The value of the Mann–Whitney U-statistic will be:
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Answer: (A) 32.5. Ranking all 30 scores together (averaging ties) gives the ES rank-sum $R_{ES}=152.5$. Then $U_{ES}=R_{ES}-\dfrac{n_1(n_1+1)}{2}=152.5-\dfrac{15\cdot16}{2}=152.5-120=32.5$, and $U_{LC}=n_1n_2-U_{ES}=225-32.5=192.5$. The Mann–Whitney statistic is the smaller value, $U=32.5$ (reflecting that ES scores are generally lower).
A. The Horvitz–Thompson estimate is an ordered estimate.
B. The unbiased estimate of the variance of the Horvitz–Thompson estimator $(\hat Z_n)$ does not reduce to zero when all the $Z_i$\'s are equal.
C. The unbiased estimate of the variance of the Horvitz–Thompson estimator $(\hat Z_n)$ may assume negative values for some samples.
D. The Horvitz–Thompson estimator $(\hat Z_n)$ is a biased estimator.
Choose the correct answer:
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Answer: (C) B and C only. The Horvitz–Thompson estimator is unbiased (so D is false) and is an unordered estimator — the ordered estimator is Des Raj\'s (so A is false). Its standard (Horvitz–Thompson form) variance estimator has two well-known drawbacks: it can take negative values for some samples (C true) and, unlike the Yates–Grundy–Sen form, it does not reduce to zero even when all $y_i/\pi_i$ are equal (B true). Hence B and C only.
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Answer: (C) Rangarajan commission. The National Statistical Commission was set up (constituted in 2005) based on the recommendations of the Rangarajan Commission on Statistics, chaired by Dr. C. Rangarajan.
A. $x=1$ is a point of local minimum.
B. $x=1$ is a point of local maximum.
C. $x=3$ is a point of local minimum.
D. $x=3$ is a point of local maximum.
Choose the correct answer:
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Answer: (B) B, C only. $f\'(x)=3x^2-12x+9=3(x-1)(x-3)$ vanishes at $x=1,3$. With $f\'\'(x)=6x-12$: $f\'\'(1)=-6<0$, so $x=1$ is a local maximum (B); $f\'\'(3)=6>0$, so $x=3$ is a local minimum (C). Hence B, C only.
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Answer: (B) 0.63. With $\Sigma_{11}=\Sigma_{22}=I_2$, $\Sigma_{12}=\begin{pmatrix}0.5&0\\0.3&0.4\end{pmatrix}$, the squared canonical correlations are the eigenvalues of $\Sigma_{12}\Sigma_{21}=\begin{pmatrix}0.25&0.15\\0.15&0.25\end{pmatrix}$, namely $0.25\pm0.15=0.4$ and $0.1$. The maximum canonical correlation is $\sqrt{0.4}\approx0.63$.
A. Central Statistics Office (CSO)
B. National Sample Survey Office (NSSO)
C. National Statistical Office (NSO)
D. Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MOSPI)
E. National Statistical Commission (NSC)
Choose the correct answer:
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Answer: (D) B, A, D, E, C. The National Sample Survey began in 1950 (B), the Central Statistics Office in 1951 (A), MOSPI was formed in 1999 (D), the National Statistical Commission was constituted in 2005 (E), and the National Statistical Office (merging CSO and NSSO) in 2019 (C). Hence B, A, D, E, C.
A. Completely Randomized Design (CRD)
B. Randomized Block Design (RBD)
C. Latin Square Design (LSD)
D. Balanced Incomplete Block Design (BIBD)
Choose the correct answer:
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Answer: (C) B and C only. CRD uses only randomization and replication — it has no local control. The Randomized Block Design (blocking in one direction) and the Latin Square Design (blocking by rows and columns) both employ all three principles — randomization, replication and local control. Hence B and C only.
(I) $y_i=\alpha+\beta x_i+u_i$
(II) $y_i=\alpha+\beta x_i+\gamma x_i^2+v_i$
Define $A=\sum(y_i-a-bx_i)^2$ and $B=\sum(y_i-\hat\alpha-\hat\beta x_i-\hat\gamma x_i^2)^2$, where $a,b$ are the OLS estimates from model (I) and $\hat\alpha,\hat\beta,\hat\gamma$ from model (II). Then which of the following is always correct?
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Answer: (A) $A\ge B$. Model (I) is nested within model (II) (set $\gamma=0$). Least squares chooses coefficients to minimize the residual sum of squares, and adding a regressor can never increase the minimized RSS. Hence $B\le A$, i.e. $A\ge B$ always. (A residual sum of squares can never be negative, so options with $B\le0$ are impossible.)
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Answer: (D) Stratified multi-stage sampling. NSSO large-scale surveys use a stratified multi-stage sampling design — e.g. villages/urban blocks as first-stage units (after stratification) and households as second-stage units — which balances cost and precision over a vast, heterogeneous population.
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Answer: (A) $\dfrac{-7}{18}$. The Yule–Walker equations $r_1=\Phi_1+\Phi_2 r_1$ and $r_2=\Phi_1 r_1+\Phi_2$ give $\Phi_2=\dfrac{r_2-r_1^2}{1-r_1^2}=\dfrac{0.5-0.64}{1-0.64}=\dfrac{-0.14}{0.36}=-\dfrac{7}{18}$.
| LIST-I | LIST-II |
|---|---|
| A. Probability of the number of successes in a finite number of trials | I. Negative Binomial |
| B. Probability of the first success | II. Poisson |
| C. Probability of the number of failures preceding the $r$th success | III. Binomial |
| D. Probability of success is infinitesimally small and the number of trials is very large | IV. Geometric |
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Answer: (A) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II. Number of successes in a fixed number of trials → Binomial (A–III). Trials until the first success → Geometric (B–IV). Number of failures before the $r$th success → Negative Binomial (C–I). The limiting case of many trials with a tiny success probability → Poisson (D–II). Hence A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II.
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Answer: (D) Periodogram. The periodogram — based on the squared magnitude of the finite Fourier transform of the series — is the classical estimator of the spectral density function (its smoothed versions give consistent spectral estimates).
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Answer: (D) $(1/3)^{100}$. Against an effectively infinitely rich casino, the classical gambler\'s-ruin probability with win probability $p>q$ is $\left(\dfrac{q}{p}\right)^{i}$ for initial capital $i$. Here $p=\tfrac34,\ q=\tfrac14$, so $q/p=\tfrac13$ and the ruin probability is $(1/3)^{100}$.
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Answer: (A) 1, 1. For the Laplace density, $|X|$ has density $f_{|X|}(y)=2\cdot\tfrac12 e^{-y}=e^{-y},\ y>0$, i.e. $|X|\sim\text{Exponential(rate 1)}$. Hence $E(|X|)=1$ and $\mathrm{Var}(|X|)=1$.
| No. of heads | 0 | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Observed freq. | 17 | 52 | 54 | 31 | 6 |
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Answer: (C) 12.725. Under Binomial$(4,\tfrac12)$ with $N=160$, the expected frequencies are $10,40,60,40,10$. Then $\chi^2=\dfrac{(17-10)^2}{10}+\dfrac{(52-40)^2}{40}+\dfrac{(54-60)^2}{60}+\dfrac{(31-40)^2}{40}+\dfrac{(6-10)^2}{10}=4.9+3.6+0.6+2.025+1.6=12.725$.
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Answer: (D) $(X\'X)^{-1}\delta$. $b=(X\'X)^{-1}X\'y=\beta+(X\'X)^{-1}X\'u$, so $b-\beta=(X\'X)^{-1}X\'u$ and $E(b-\beta)=(X\'X)^{-1}E(X\'u)=(X\'X)^{-1}\delta$. (When $\delta=0$ this reduces to the usual unbiasedness; here $\delta\ne0$ gives the endogeneity bias.)
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Answer: (C) 6.25. For a stationary AR(1), $\mathrm{Var}(y_t)=\dfrac{\sigma^2_\epsilon}{1-\phi^2}=\dfrac{4}{1-0.6^2}=\dfrac{4}{0.64}=6.25$.
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Answer: (A) 7. $SS_{error}=SS_{total}-SS_{treat}-SS_{blocks}=477-177-195=105$. The error degrees of freedom are $(t-1)(b-1)=(4-1)(6-1)=15$. Hence $MSE=105/15=7$.
(i) $y_1=r_1 y_2+\beta_{11}x_1+\beta_{12}x_2+\epsilon_1$
(ii) $y_2=r_2 y_1+\beta_{22}x_2+\epsilon_2$
where the $y$\'s are endogenous and the $x$\'s are exogenous variables. Then:
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Answer: (C) (ii) is identified but (i) is not. The system has 2 predetermined variables ($x_1,x_2$). Order condition: (excluded predetermined) $\ge$ (included endogenous $-1$). Equation (i) excludes no exogenous variable ($0\ge1$ fails) → not identified. Equation (ii) excludes $x_1$ ($1\ge1$ holds) → identified (just-identified). Hence (ii) is identified but (i) is not.
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Answer: (C) 35. Neyman allocation: $n_h=n\dfrac{N_h S_h}{\sum N_k S_k}$. Since $S_1=S_2$, this reduces to proportional allocation: $n_2=50\times\dfrac{350}{150+350}=50\times0.7=35$.
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Answer: (A) $\left(-\infty,\ \bar X+t_{n-1,\alpha}\,S/\sqrt n\right)$. With $\sigma$ unknown, $\dfrac{\bar X-\mu}{S/\sqrt n}\sim t_{n-1}$. A one-sided $(1-\alpha)$ upper bound satisfies $P\!\left(\mu\le\bar X+t_{n-1,\alpha}\,S/\sqrt n\right)=1-\alpha$, giving the interval $\left(-\infty,\ \bar X+t_{n-1,\alpha}\,S/\sqrt n\right)$ (note the $n-1$ degrees of freedom and the $+$ sign for an upper bound).
| LIST-I (R command) | LIST-II (output) |
|---|---|
A. > min(c(1,6,-14,-154,0)) | I. [1] -154 6 |
B. > max(c(1,6,-14,-154,0)) | II. [1] 6 |
C. > range(c(1,6,-14,-154,0)) | III. [1] -154 |
D. > which(c(1,6,-14,-154,0) < 0) | IV. [1] 3 4 |
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Answer: (B) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV. min returns $-154$ (A–III); max returns 6 (B–II); range returns the pair $(-154,\ 6)$ (C–I); which(...<0) returns the positions of the negative entries $-14$ and $-154$, namely 3 and 4 (D–IV). Hence A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV.
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Answer: (A) 0. $PQ=\left(I_n-\dfrac{uv\'}{u\'v}\right)uv\'=uv\'-\dfrac{u(v\'u)v\'}{u\'v}$. Since the scalar $v\'u=u\'v$, the second term is $uv\'$, so $PQ=uv\'-uv\'=0$. ($P$ is the oblique projector annihilating the column space of $Q$.)
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Answer: (C) Uniform$(0,2)$. For two iid exponential variables, the conditional density of $X$ given $X+Y=s$ is $\dfrac{f_X(x)f_Y(s-x)}{f_{X+Y}(s)}=\dfrac{\lambda^2 e^{-\lambda s}}{\lambda^2 s\,e^{-\lambda s}}=\dfrac1s$ for $0<x<s$ — i.e. Uniform$(0,s)$. With $s=2$, $X\mid(X+Y=2)\sim\text{Uniform}(0,2)$.
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Answer: (B) 7. Total observations $=2^3\times2=16$, so total df $=15$. The 7 factorial effects (A, B, C, AB, AC, BC, ABC) take 7 df, and the two replications, laid out as blocks as a replicated factorial normally is, take $r-1=1$. Hence error df $=15-7-1=(r-1)(2^3-1)=7$. (Only if the replications were not treated as blocks, a completely randomized layout, would the error df be $2^3(r-1)=8$.)
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Answer: (B) $rk(r-\lambda)^{v-1}$. For a BIBD, $NN\'=(r-\lambda)I_v+\lambda J_v$. Its determinant is $(r-\lambda)^{v-1}\big[r+(v-1)\lambda\big]$. Using $\lambda(v-1)=r(k-1)$, we get $r+(v-1)\lambda=rk$, so $|NN\'|=rk\,(r-\lambda)^{v-1}$.
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Answer: (C) $(1-e^{-x})^7$. The CDF of a single observation is $F(x)=1-e^{-x}$. The maximum $X_{(n)}\le x$ iff all $n$ observations are $\le x$, so $F_{X_{(7)}}(x)=[F(x)]^7=(1-e^{-x})^7$.
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Answer: (B) 0. $Cy=X\beta+Cu$ (fitted values) and $(I_n-C)y=(I_n-C)u$ (residuals). Then $E[(Cy)\{(I_n-C)y\}\']=X\beta\,E(u\')(I_n-C)+C\,E(uu\')(I_n-C)=0+\sigma^2 C(I_n-C)=\sigma^2(C-C^2)=0$, since $C$ is idempotent. Fitted values and residuals are uncorrelated.
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Answer: (B) 0.75. Power $=P(X\ge0.5\mid\theta=2)$. Under $H_1$, $X\sim U[0,2]$ with density $\tfrac12$, so $P(X\ge0.5)=\int_{0.5}^{2}\tfrac12\,dx=\tfrac12(1.5)=0.75$.
A. We prefix the type I error and minimize the type II error.
B. We prefix both types of error.
C. The sample size becomes a random variable.
D. The SPRT terminates surely.
Choose the correct answer:
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Answer: (B) B, C, D only. In the SPRT both error probabilities $\alpha$ and $\beta$ are fixed in advance (B true, so A is false), and sampling continues until a boundary is crossed, making the sample size $N$ a random variable (C true). Wald proved the SPRT terminates with probability 1 (D true). Hence B, C, D only.
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Answer: (D) $\begin{pmatrix}3\\3\end{pmatrix},\ \begin{pmatrix}2&1\\1&2/3\end{pmatrix}$. $\hat\mu=\bar X=(3,3)\'$. The MLE of $\Sigma$ uses divisor $n$: with deviations $(-2,-1),(1,1),(1,0)$, $\sum(X_i-\bar X)(X_i-\bar X)\'=\begin{pmatrix}6&3\\3&2\end{pmatrix}$, so $\hat\Sigma=\tfrac13\begin{pmatrix}6&3\\3&2\end{pmatrix}=\begin{pmatrix}2&1\\1&2/3\end{pmatrix}$.
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Answer: (B) $pq(1+p)$. Computing $P^2$ gives first row $(q^2+pq,\ pq,\ p^2)$. Then $p_{12}^{(3)}=(P^2)_{11}P_{12}+(P^2)_{12}P_{22}+(P^2)_{13}P_{32}=(q^2+pq)p+pq\cdot0+p^2\cdot q=pq^2+2p^2q=pq(q+2p)$. Since $q+2p=(q+p)+p=1+p$, this equals $pq(1+p)$.
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Answer: (C) $0$. A first return to state 1 at step 3 must avoid state 1 at steps 1 and 2: the only feasible path is $1\to2\to3\to1$ (from 1 only $1\to2$ has positive probability among non-1 moves, then $2\to3$). But $P_{31}=0$, so the last step $3\to1$ is impossible. Hence $f_{11}^{(3)}=p\cdot p\cdot0=0$.
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Answer: (D) $p^{-1}$. The mean first-passage time satisfies $\mu_{12}=1+\sum_{k\ne2}P_{1k}\mu_{k2}=1+P_{11}\mu_{12}+P_{13}\mu_{32}=1+q\,\mu_{12}$ (since $P_{13}=0$). Hence $\mu_{12}(1-q)=1$, giving $\mu_{12}=\dfrac{1}{1-q}=\dfrac1p=p^{-1}$.
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Answer: (A) $\left(\dfrac{q^2}{1-pq},\ \dfrac{pq}{1-pq},\ \dfrac{p^2}{1-pq}\right)$. Solving $\pi P=\pi$ gives $\pi_2=\tfrac pq\pi_1$ and $\pi_3=\tfrac{p^2}{q^2}\pi_1$, so $\pi\propto(q^2,\,pq,\,p^2)$. Direct check confirms $(q^2,pq,p^2)P=(q^2,pq,p^2)$ using $p+q=1$. Normalizing by $q^2+pq+p^2=(p+q)^2-pq=1-pq$ gives $\pi=\left(\dfrac{q^2}{1-pq},\dfrac{pq}{1-pq},\dfrac{p^2}{1-pq}\right)$. (Only when $p=q=\tfrac12$ does this reduce to $(\tfrac13,\tfrac13,\tfrac13)$.)
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Answer: (A) $q^4 p$. A first passage from 1 to 2 in 5 steps must avoid state 2 for the first 4 steps. Among the non-2 states, from state 1 only the self-loop $1\to1$ has positive probability ($P_{13}=0$), and state 3 is unreachable from 1 without passing through 2. So the walk stays at state 1 for four steps ($q$ each) and then moves $1\to2$ (probability $p$): $f_{12}^{(5)}=q^4 p$.
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Answer: (D) ARIMA(1, 1, 1) process. The AR polynomial $1-0.6B-0.4B^2=(1-B)(1+0.4B)$ has a unit root, so the process is non-stationary and needs one difference ($d=1$). After differencing, the stationary AR part is order 1 and the MA part is order 1 (only $\theta_1\ne0$). Hence it is an ARIMA(1, 1, 1) process.
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Answer: (C) $\alpha(h)=0$ for all $h\ge3$. With $\theta_1=\theta_2=0$ the model is a pure AR(2) process. The partial autocorrelation function of an AR($p$) process cuts off after lag $p$, i.e. $\alpha(h)=0$ for all $h>p$. Here $p=2$, so $\alpha(h)=0$ for all $h\ge3$.
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Answer: (B) Stationary but not invertible. AR part: with $\Phi_1+\Phi_2=0.7<1,\ \Phi_2-\Phi_1=-0.1<1,\ |\Phi_2|<1$, all stationarity conditions hold — the process is stationary. MA part: $1-0.6B-0.4B^2=(1-B)(1+0.4B)$ has a unit root ($\theta_1+\theta_2=1$), so the MA polynomial is not invertible. Hence stationary but not invertible.
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Answer: (C) $\dfrac{(0.6)^h}{0.64}$. The model reduces to the AR(1) process $y_t=0.6\,y_{t-1}+\epsilon_t$ with $\sigma^2_\epsilon=1$. Its autocovariance is $r(h)=\phi^{h}\dfrac{\sigma^2_\epsilon}{1-\phi^2}=\dfrac{(0.6)^h}{1-0.36}=\dfrac{(0.6)^h}{0.64}$. (Note $(0.6)^h$ alone is the autocorrelation, not the autocovariance.)
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Answer: (D) $[1.49-1.4\cos(2\pi\omega)]^{-1}$. The model reduces to the MA(1) process $y_t=\epsilon_t-0.7\,\epsilon_{t-1}$ with $\sigma^2=1$. Its spectral density is proportional to $|1-0.7e^{-2\pi i\omega}|^2=1+0.49-1.4\cos(2\pi\omega)=1.49-1.4\cos(2\pi\omega)$. Option D is the only one with these coefficients. Its printed $-1$ exponent is a misprint: an MA spectrum is a polynomial in $\cos(2\pi\omega)$, while the reciprocal form belongs to an AR(1) process.
Complete: Paper I — General Paper (50/50) and Paper II — Statistics, Q51–Q150 (100/100). All 150 questions are transcribed with independently worked, hidden solutions.